1000+ Airport Engineering MCQ for SSC CPO [Solved]

1. According to ICAO, all markings on the runways are
A. Yellow
B. White
C. Black
D. Red
Answer : B

2. The length of a runway under standard atmospheric conditions is 1800 m. If the actual reduced level of the site is 1200 m, the design length of the runway is
A. 2360 m
B. 2460 m
C. 2560 m
D. 2660 m
Answer : C

3. Pick up the component not applicable to aeroplanes
A. Wings
B. Engines
C. Air screw
D. None of these
Answer : D

4. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
A. The basic length of a runway is increased at a rate of 7% per 300 m of elevation of M.S.L.
B. The standard temperature at the site is obtained by reducing the standard sea level temperature of 15°C at the rate of 6.5°C per 1000 m rise in elevation
C. The aerodrome reference temperature is the monthly mean of the mean daily temperature for the hottest month of the year
D. All the above
Answer : D

5. For Class A Air port the difference of reduced levels of higher and lower edges of the conical surface, is
A. 25 m
B. 50 m
C. 75 m
D. 100 m
Answer : D

6. Assertion A : Airport capacity during IFR conditions is usually less than that during VFR conditions. Reason R: During clear weather condition (VFR), the aircrafts on final approach to runway can be spaced closer during poor visibility conditions. Select your answer based on the coding system given below:
A. Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R is true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true
Answer : A

7. Total correction for elevation, temperature and gradient for a runway should not be more than
A. 15 %
B. 20 %
C. 25 %
D. 35 %
Answer : D

8. The reduced levels of the ends A and B of a runway are 3025 m and 3035 m and that of its mid-point is 3015 m. The reduced level of the horizontal surface, is
A. 3070 m
B. 3060 m
C. 3075 m
D. 3015 m
Answer : C

9. As per UK design criteria, if LCN of aircraft is between 1.25 to 1.5 times the LCN of pavement, then the number of movements allowed are
A. Zero
B. 300
C. 3000
D. Unrestricted
Answer : B

10. The lift off distance is the distance along the centre of the runway between the starting point and
A. End of the runway
B. End of stop-way
C. Point where air craft becomes air borne
D. Point where air craft attains a height of 10.7 m
Answer : A

11. If lift off distance of an craft is 2000 m, the clear way at the end of the runway should not be less than
A. 145 m
B. 152.5 m
C. 162.5 m
D. 172.5 m
Answer : D

12. An aircraft is flying in an atmosphere of 30°C with a speed of 1260 km ph. Its speed is known as
A. Subsonic
B. Sonic
C. Super-sonic
D. Mach
Answer : B

13. Castor angle is defined as the angle
A. Formed by the longitudinal axis of the aircraft and the direction of movement of the nose gear
B. Between the direction of wind and the longitudinal axis of the runway
C. Between the true speed of the aircraft and the crosswind component
D. Between the horizontal and the fuselage axis
Answer : A

14. The landing and takeoff of the air craft is made against the direction of wind. In no case the centre line of the runway should make an angle with the wind direction exceeding
A. 10°
B. 20°
C. 30°
D. 40°
Answer : C

15. Which of the following factors are taken into account for estimating the runway length required for aircraft landing?
1. Normal maximum temperature
2. Airport elevation
3. Maximum landing weight
4. Effective runway gradient Select the correct answer using the codes given below Codes:
A. 1, 2, 3 and 4
B. 1, 3 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 1, 2 and 4
Answer : D

16. The runway length after correcting for elevation and temperature is 2845 m. If the effective gradient on runway is 0.5 percent then the revised runway length will be
A. 2845 m
B. 2910 m
C. 3030 m
D. 3130 m
Answer : C

17. If the monthly mean of average daily temperature for the hottest month of the year is 25°C and the monthly mean of the maximum daily temperature of the same month of the year is 46°C, the airport reference temperature is
A. 32°C
B. 35.5°C
C. 48°C
D. 25°C
Answer : C

18. In approach areas of runways equipped with instrumental landing facilities any object within 4.5 km distance from runway end shall be considered as an obstruction if its height is more than
A. 20 m
B. 30 m
C. 45 m
D. 51 m
Answer : B

19. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
A. In single engine aeroplanes, the engine is provided in the nose of the aircraft
B. In double engine aeroplanes, one engine on either wing is placed symmetrically
C. In three engine aeroplanes, two engines re placed on both wings and one engine is placed in the tail
D. None of these
Answer : C

20. Assertion A : The ratio of arriving and departing aircrafts influences the airport Capacity: Reason R : Landing operation is generally given priority over the taking off operation. Select your answer based on the coding system given below:
A. Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R is true and R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true
Answer : A

21. For the proposed runway stated in if the aerodrome reference temperature is 17°.2, the net designed length of the runway is
A. 2716 m
B. 2816 m
C. 2916 m
D. 3016 m
Answer : B

22. A gradient of + 0.08% is followed by a gradient of - 0.07%. If the permissible rate of change of grade is 0.003 per 30 metres, the length of the transition curve, is
A. 150 m
B. 140 m
C. 160 m
D. 175 m
Answer : A

23. From the end of an instrumental runway, the approach surface rises outwards
A. 1 in 20
B. 1 in 30
C. 1 in 40
D. 1 in 50
Answer : D

24. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
A. Approach zone survey is carried out to determine the elevations of the protruding obstructions above horizontal, conical and transitional surfaces
B. The wind data of an air port is depicted in the form of a chart known as wind rose
C. The landing and takeoff of the air craft is made against the wind direction
D. All the above
Answer : D

25. Maximum gross takeoff weight of an aircraft is
A. Equal to the maximum structural landing weight
B. Less than the maximum structural landing weight
C. More than the maximum structural landing weight
D. Equal to the empty operating weight plus the payload
Answer : C

26. According to I.C.A.O. the slope of transitional surface at right angles to the centre line of runway, is kept
A. 1 in 4
B. 1 in 5
C. 1 in 6
D. 1 in 7
Answer : D

27. According to the International Civil Aviation Organisation (I.C.A.O.), the runway lengths of aerodromes, have been coded by
A. Seven English alphabets
B. Last Seven English alphabets
C. First Seven English alphabets
D. First seven natural numbers
Answer : C

28. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
A. Air screw converts the energy given by the engine into speed
B. The propellers which are driven by turbine engines, are technically called turboprops
C. The aircrafts which obtain the thrust directly from turbine engine, are called turbo-jets
D. All the above
Answer : D

29. Airport elevation is the reduced level above M.S.L. of
A. Control tower
B. Highest point of the landing area
C. Lowest point of the landing area
D. None of these
Answer : B

30. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
A. Runway edge from the landing side, is called threshold
B. Localizer indicates to the pilot his position with respect to the proposed alignment
C. The glide slope indicates the correct angle of descent
D. All the above
Answer : D

31. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
A. Channelization of pavement is caused by constant use of tri-cycle gears of aircraft
B. Blast pads are used over cohesionless soils to resist erosion due to tremendous speed of the jet blast
C. Over-run areas of at least 300 m length on either side of the runway are provided
D. None of these
Answer : D

32. Two single runways may be arranged so as to have
A. L-shape
B. T-shape
C. X-shape
D. All the above
Answer : D

33. The length of runway is increased per 300 m rise above M.S.L.
A. 3 %
B. 4 %
C. 5 %
D. 7 %
Answer : D

34. The strength of winds is measured with the help of
A. Beaufort scale
B. Wind indicator
C. Barometers
D. None of these
Answer : A

35. Speed of
A. Sound at 0°C is 1190 kmph
B. Sound varies 2.4 kmph per degree centigrade rise in temperature
C. Sound at 0°C is called one Mach
D. All the above
Answer : D

36. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
A. The centre line of the approach area coincides with that of the runway
B. Approach areas are measured in horizontal surfaces
C. Obstruction clearance surface and approach surface are same
D. All the above
Answer : D

37. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
A. L.O.M. is installed at 7.2 km from the threshold
B. L.M.M. is installed at 1.0 km from the threshold
C. Localizer antenna is installed at 300 m from the other end of the runway
D. Glide slope antenna is installed at the centre of the runway about 150 m on one side
Answer : D

38. Beaufort scale is used to determine
A. Strength of winds
B. Direction of winds
C. Height of air-crafts
D. None of these
Answer : A

39. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
A. Approximate geometric centre of the landing area, is called air port reference point
B. The boundaries of horizontal surface and conical surface are marked with reference to air port reference point
C. The location of the air port on a map is the position of air port reference point
D. All the above
Answer : D

40. If the width of the approach area near the runway end is 150 m, the width of the approach area at a distance of 3 kilometres from runway end will be
A. 1500 m
B. 1200 m
C. 1000 m
D. 800 m
Answer : B

41. The capacity of parallel runway pattern depends upon
A. Weather conditions and navigational aids available
B. Lateral spacing between two runways and weather conditions
C. Lateral spacing between two runways and navigational aids available
D. Lateral spacing between two runways, weather conditions and navigational aids available.
Answer : D

42. The distance between main gears is 10 m, and the distance of nose gear from centre of main gears is 30 m. If the angle of turning is 60°, the distance of centre of rotation from the nearer main gear, is
A. 12.30 m
B. 11.30 m
C. 10.30 m
D. 9.30 m
Answer : A

43. As per ICAO recommendation, the rate of change of longitudinal gradient per 30 m length of vertical curve for A and B type of airports is limited to a maximum of
A. 0.1 %
B. 0.2 %
C. 0.3 %
D. 0.4 %
Answer : A

44. According to I.C.A.O. the recommended length of air ports is decided on
A. Sea level elevation
B. Standard sea level temperature (15°C)
C. Effective gradient percentage
D. All the above
Answer : D

45. The coordinates of the ends of a runway are (5000, 5000) and (8000, 7000). The co-ordinates of another runway are (4600, 5100) and (7000, 5300). The co-ordinates of the A.R.P. are
A. (6500, 6000)
B. (5800, 5200)
C. (61500, 5600)
D. (8000, 7000)
Answer : C

46. Pick up the correct abbreviation from the following:
A. L.M.M. (low powered middle marker)
B. V.H.F, (very high frequency)
C. L.O.M. (low powered outer marker)
D. All the above
Answer : D

47. International Civil Aviation Organisation (I.C.A.O.) was set up at Montreal (Canada), in
A. 1929
B. 1939
C. 1947
D. 1950
Answer : C

48. Consider the following statements: Wind rose diagram is used for the purposes of
1. Runway orientation
2. Estimating the runway capacity
3. Geometric design of holding apron of these statements
A. 1 and 2 are correct
B. 2 and 3 are correct
C. 1 and 3 are correct
D. 1 alone is correct
Answer : D

49. The best direction of a runway is along the direction of
A. Longest line on wind rose diagram
B. Shortest line on the wind rose diagram
C. Line clear of wind rose diagram
D. None of these
Answer : A

50. Zero fuel weight of an aircraft is:
A. Equal to empty operating weight
B. Equal to maximum landing weight
C. Less than empty operating weight
D. Equal to sum of empty operating weight and the maximum pay load
Answer : D