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1000+ Indian Polity & Economy Multiple Choice Question Answer [Solved]

Thursday 9th of March 2023

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1. Which one of the following countries has a presidential form of Government
A. India
B. Britain
C. Canada
D. U.S.A.
Answer : D
2. The President of India can nominate to the Rajya Sabha
A. 6 members
B. 9 members
C. 12 members
D. 15 members
Answer : C
3. The members of the Constituent Assembly were
A. elected by Provincial Assembly
B. elected directly by people
C. nominated by the government
D. only representatives of the princely states
Answer : A
4. What are the residuary powers ?
A. Powers which are enumerated in the state list
B. Powers which are included in the state list
C. Powers which are enumerated in the concurrent list
D. Powers which are not mentioned in any of the lists
Answer : D
5. The tenth schedule of Indian constitution deals with
A. Anti-defection legislation
B. Panchayati Raj
C. Land Reforms
D. Distribution of powers between the Union and States
Answer : A
6. The Directive Principles of State Policy of India have similarity with
A. The Constitution of U. K.
B. The Constitution of U. S. A.
C. The Constitution of Ireland
D. None of the above
Answer : C
7. The Indian constitution borrowed the directive principles of the state policy from the constitution of which of the following countries ?
A. United Kingdom (U.K.) Britain
B. United States of America (USA)
C. Ireland
D. Japan
Answer : C
8. Who was the speaker of the first Lok-Sabha ?
A. Hukam Singh
B. G. V. Mavalankar
C. K. M. Munshi
D. U. N. Dhebar
Answer : B
9. How many members of the Rajya Sabha are nominated by the president ?
A. Five
B. Twelve
C. One-fifth of the total members
D. Ten
Answer : B
10. The approach paper for the 11th five year plan of India was approved by National Development Council in its meeting held on
A. 7th November
B. 20th November
C. 9th December
D. 10th January
Answer : C
11. How many members of Rajya Sabha are nominated by the President ?
A. 12
B. 15
C. 10
D. 20
Answer : A
12. The executive powers of the state are vested in the governor under article of the Constitution
A. Article 154 (1)
B. Article 155
C. Article 14
D. Article 356
Answer : A
13. When the Constituent Assembly for the Dominion of India reassembled on 31st October,1947,it's reduced membership was
A. 299
B. 311
C. 319
D. 331
Answer : A
14. Aristotle, the father or Political Science, believed that the State continues to exist for the sake of good life. His belief is right because
A. The state alone can provide opportunities for the proper development of the individual's faculties
B. State has the power to regulate and control
C. State is what is made by the people
D. State is the result of a contract
Answer : A
15. Which Article of the Constitution of India abolishes untouchability and forbids its practice in any form ?
A. Article 16
B. Article 17
C. Article 18
D. Article 15
Answer : B
16. Which of the following states does not bear Panchayati Raj System ?
A. Mizoram
B. Haryana
C. Kerala
D. Karnataka
Answer : A
17. The Constitution of India was promulgated on January 26, 1950 because
A. this day was being celebrated as the Independence day since 1929
B. it was the wish of the framers of the Constitution
C. the British did not want to leave Inadia earlier than this day
D. it was an auspicious day
Answer : A
18. What was the scheme to reduce interest burden of the state Government of India through gradual conversion of high cost debt into a low cost debt known as ?
A. Debt swap scheme
B. Debt write off scheme
C. Grantsinaid scheme
D. Debt consolidation scheme
Answer : A
19. Human Rights Day is observed all over the world every year on
A. 24 October
B. 7 November
C. 10 December
D. 25 December
Answer : C
20. The constitution of india was adopted by the
A. Governor General
B. British Parliament
C. Constituent Assembly
D. Parliament of India
Answer : C
21. When did the United Nations Organization come into existence ?
A. October 24, 1945
B. October 24, 1943
C. November 26, 1945
D. November 26, 1943
Answer : A
22. The Comptroller and Auditor General is appointed by the President. He can be remvoed
A. By the President
B. On the address from both Houss of Parliament
C. By the Supreme Court
D. On the recommendation of the President by the Supreme Court
Answer : A
23. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?
A. The Vice-President of India holds office for a period of five years
B. The Vice-President of India can be removed by a simple majority of votes passed in the Rajya Sabha only
C. The Vice-President of India continues to be in office even after the expiry of his term till his successor talkes over
D. The Supreme Court of India has to look into all disputes with regard to the election the Vice-President of India
Answer : B
24. 'The relation between individual and society is not one-sided: both are essential for the comprehension of either." Whose words are these
A. Karl Marx
B. Plato
C. Mac Iver
D. M. K. Gandhi
Answer : C
25. For removing the Vice President of Indian from his office a resolution is initiated in -
A. The joint sitting of both the House
B. The Rajya Sabha
C. The Lok Sabha
D. Any of the two Houses
Answer : B
26. In case the post of President of India falls vacant and there is also no Vice-President, than who among the following would be the acting President ?
A. Viec-Chairman of Rajya Sabha
B. Attorney General of India
C. Lok Sabha Speaker
D. Chief Justice of Supreme Court
Answer : D
27. Which one of the following is the essential function of the General Assembly
A. To discuss the problems facing the world
B. Took prepare the whole budget for U.N.O. and to find out the ways and means to meet the expenses therein
C. To prepare and improve the International Laws
D. All the above
Answer : D
28. 2 and 4Prior Sanction of the President of India is required before introducing the bill, in the Parliament on
1. Formation of a new state.
2. Affecting taxation in which states are interested.
3. Altering the boundaries of the states.
4. Money bill
Considering the above statements.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below

A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 2, 3 and 4
C. 1, 2 and 4
D. All of the above
Answer : D
29. Which of the following are included in the Constitution of India as the directive principles of state policy ?
1. Separation of judiciary from executive.
2. Participation of workers in management of industry.
3. Equal justice and free legal aid.
Select the correct answer using the code given below

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer : D
30. Who among the following was the Constitutional adviser to the Constituent Assembly of India
A. Dr.B.N Rao
B. Dr.B.R Ambedkar
C. K.M Munshi
D. M.C Setalvad
Answer : A
31. Parliamentary system in India has been borrowed from which country ?
A. America
B. Britain
C. Australia
D. Ireland
Answer : B
32. Which of the following was the biggest source for the Constitution of India ?
A. The Government of India Act, 1919
B. The Government of India Act, 1935
C. The Indian Independence Act, 1947
D. None of the above
Answer : B
33. Consider the following statements
1. The Constitution of India classifies the members of the council of union ministers into three ranks.
2. A members of Rajya Sabha can be chosen as a union minister and he enjoys the right to vote
in the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer : D
34. Which one of the following expenditures is not charged on the consolidated fund of India?
A. Salary and allowances of the President of India
B. Salary and allowances of the Governor of a State of India
C. Salary and allowances of the justice of the Supreme Court of India
D. Salary and allowances of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Answer : B
35. Which organ is the custodian of the National purse ?
A. Executive
B. Judiciary
C. Legislature
D. Civil Servants
Answer : C
36. All the following are fundamental rights guaranteed by the Indian constitution except
A. The right to equality
B. The right against exploitation
C. The right to adequate means of livelihood
D. The right to freedom of religion
Answer : C
37. Under the Constitution, the power to issue a writ of Habeas Corpus is vested in
A. High Court alone
B. Both Supreme Court and High Courts
C. All courts down to the District Courts
D. None of these
Answer : B
38. Given below are two statements
Assertion (A) : Powers for conducting elections to the Parliament and state legislatures in a free and fair manner have been given to an independent body i.e. the Election Commission.
Reason (R) : Power of removal of Election Commissioners is with the executive.
In the context of above, which one of the following is correct ?

A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true
Answer : B
39. In which year did the Supreme Court of India dismiss the petitions of the cement, fertilizer and sugar industries challenging the jute packing material Act, 1987 ?
A. 1980
B. 1990
C. 1993
D. 1996
Answer : C
40. In which general election did the Congress Party lose majority in the Parliament for the first time ?
A. 1967
B. 1977
C. 1980
D. None of the above
Answer : B
41. During which of the following periods did the Constituent Assembly deliberate upon finalization of the Constitution of India ?
A. November, 1946 November, 1949
B. November, 1947 November, 1949
C. December, 1946 November, 1949
D. December, 1947 November, 1949
Answer : C
42. Mahatma Gandhi often stressed the importance of villages and wanted the establishment of 'Gram Raj' in India. It was because
A. Gandhiji was born in a village
B. Village administration is easy
C. Village people are good and hard working
D. Villages are the backbone of the nation and help for the welfare of all people
Answer : D
43. The main organ of U.N.O. is
A. General Assembly
B. Security Council
C. International Court of Justice
D. All the above
Answer : D
44. whole or any part of India for implementing international
treaties

A. With the consent of all the states
B. With the consent of majority of states
C. With the consent of states conerned
D. Without the consent of any state
Answer : D
45. Magna Carta in England led to the Development of
A. Constitutional law
B. International law
C. Labour law
D. Criminal law
Answer : A
46. Consider the following statements :
1. The mode of removal of a judge of a High Court in India is same as that of removal of a judge of the Supreme Court.
2. After retirement from the office, a permanent judge of a High Court can not plead or act in any court or before any authority in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer : C
47. The number of Anglo-Indians who can be nominated by the President to the Lok Sabha is
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer : A
48. Consider the following statements :
1. A money bill cannot be introduced in the Council of States.
2. The Council of States cannot reject a money bill nor amend it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer : C
49. Rajya Sabha can delay the Finance Bill sent for its consideration by the Lok Sabha for a maximum period of
A. One month
B. One year
C. Seven days
D. Fourteen days
Answer : D
50. The most profound influence on the drafting of the Indian Constitution was exercised by the
A. U.S.Constitution
B. British Constitution
C. Government of India Act,1935
D. French ideals of Liberty and Fraternity
Answer : C

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