1000+ Urologic infections and inflammations MCQ for RBI Grade B officer [Solved]

1. Which of the following factors increases the risk of UTI due to promotion of microbial colonization?
A. neurogenic bladder
B. the use of spermicide
C. urinary catheterization
D. fecal incontinence
Answer : B

2. What is false concerning acute pyelonephritis?
A. CBC reveals leucocytosis with predominance of neutrophils
B. contrast CT reveals one or more focal wedge-like swollen regions of the kidney parenchyma, sparing the cortex, and demonstrating reduced enhancement rim sign
C. in children, recurrent acute pyelonephritis might lead to renal scarring
D. in pregnancy, recurrent acute pyelonephritis might lead to preterm labor
Answer : B

3. Under which surgical wound classification, does diagnostic cystoscopy under sterile technique fit?
A. dirty - infected
B. contaminated
C. clean - contaminated
D. clean
Answer : C

4. What is true regarding acute pyelonephritis?
A. a cause of obstruction should be sought
B. PCN is placed to decompress the kidney and preserve renal function
C. blood-born staphylococci are commoner than ascending E.coli infections
D. blood and urine cultures must dictate the antibiotic choice from day 1
Answer : A

5. What is false concerning post UTI renal scarring in pediatrics?
A. the incidence of scarring following a single episode of febrile UTI is 4.5%
B. intra-renal reflux is common in convex papillae
C. scarring and chronic pyelonephritis lead to hypertension in 10-20%
D. scarring is best detected and followed up by DMSA
Answer : B

6. What virus(s) could cause orchitis?
A. Coxsackie B
B. Epstein-Barr
C. varicella
D. all of the above
Answer : D

7. When comparing nosocomial to community-acquired UTI, the latter is:
A. 45% are caused by E. coli
B. related to an indwelling urinary catheter in approximately 40% of cases
C. responds fairly to oral antibiotics
D. tends to report higher antibiotic resistance
Answer : C

8. What is false concerning radiation cystitis?
A. the average time from the beginning of radiation therapy to initial symptoms could be 2 4 weeks
B. treatment with stationary radiation, portals carry a higher risk of morbidity than treatment with rotating portals do
C. it occurs in about 10% of patients treated with definitive irradiation therapy for prostate cancer after 10 years
D. most cases are mildly affected and require no specific therapy
Answer : A

9. What is false concerning acute glomerulonephritis?
A. manifested as a sudden onset of hematuria, proteinuria, oliguria, edema, hypertension, and RBC casts in the urine
B. post-streptococcus GN has an incubation period of 1-3 weeks with specific strains of group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus
C. the triad of sinusitis, pulmonary infiltrates, and nephritis, suggests Wegener granulomatosis
D. C3, C4, ESR and antistreptolysin O titer are increased
Answer : D

10. What is false concerning peri-renal abscess?
A. could result from intra-renal abscess of ascending infection
B. urine culture might be negative
C. plain KUB X-ray has no value in the diagnosis
D. surgical drainage is the proper treatment
Answer : C

11. What are the diagnostic findings on cystometrogram for BPS/IC?
A. discomfort on placing urethral catheter and pain on bladder filling
B. difficulty in zeroing the pressure and diminished response to first cough
C. low filling pressure but high voiding pressure
D. uninhibited bladder contractions with a relative bladder hypotonia
Answer : A

12. Which of the following does NOT cause unresolved bacteriuria?
A. giant staghorn stone
B. perivesical abscess with fistula to the bladder
C. bacterial resistance
D. self-inflicted infection
Answer : B

13. In males, HIV infection increases the incidence of the following genitourinary tumors:
A. testicular
B. renal
C. penile
D. all of the above
Answer : D

14. What is true regarding genitourinary TB?
A. commonly, TB enters the urinary tract via intravesical instillation of attenuated live BCG to treat bladder cancer
B. CT urography may show infundibular stricture with or without hydrocalicosis
C. renal ultrasonography reveals calyceal erosions moth-eaten calyx
D. TB of the vas appears, clinically, as a thin hard strictured tube
Answer : B

15. Which statement best defines reinfection?
A. a new episode of UTI caused by different species or occurring at long intervals
B. recurrent UTIs caused by the same organism in each instance, classically, at close intervals
C. recurrent UTIs due to failure of medical therapy to eradicate the infection
D. recurrent UTIs due to a persistent pathology that is obstinate to surgery
Answer : A

16. Which of the following conditions is NOT associated with interstitial cystitis?
A. inflammatory bowel disease
B. rheumatoid arthritis
C. systemic lupus erythematosus
D. fibromyalgia
Answer : B

17. What is false in the treatment and prevention of STDs?
A. antibiotic therapy is recommended for affected individuals with documented trichomonal infection and sexual partners even if asymptomatic
B. empirical treatment for gonococal urethritis should cover chlamydia trachomatis
C. consistent and proper usage of condoms is estimated to prevent HIV transmission by approximately 80 to 95%
D. vaccinations are available for the prevention of human papillomavirus, N. gonorrhea, chlamydia trachomatis
Answer : D

18. Directed physiotherapy could be of value in treating what NIH type of prostatitis?
A. type II
B. type III-a
C. type III-b
D. type IV
Answer : C

19. Histologically, the pathognomonic finding of Fournier gangrene include:
A. necrosis of the superficial and deep fascial planes
B. fibrinoid thrombosis of the nutrient arterioles
C. polymorphonuclear cell infiltration
D. all of the above
Answer : D

20. As per NIH classification of prostatitis, which type requires no treatment?
A. type I
B. type II
C. type III
D. type IV
Answer : D

21. HIV infection increases the incidence of the following cancers, EXCEPT:
A. Kaposi sarcoma,
B. Hodgkin lymphoma
C. non-Hodgkin lymphoma
D. cervical cancer
Answer : B

22. What is true concerning the definition of UTI in women, based on culture results from a suprapubic aspirate of urine?
A. any amount of uropathogen grown in culture indicates UTI
B. for cystitis, more than 1000 CFU/mL indicates UTI
C. for pyelonephritis, more than 10,000 CFU/mL indicates UTI
D. for asymptomatic bacteriuria, more than 100,000 CFU/mL indicates UTI
Answer : A

23. What is true regarding contrast CT imaging for a renal abscess?
A. abscess appears as a low attenuation cystic cavity containing gas
B. renal parenchyma around the abscess cavity may show hypo enhancement in nephrogram phase
C. associated fascial and septal thickening are seen with obliteration of perinephric fat
D. all of the above
Answer : D

24. Which of the following conditions does NOT cause bacterial persistence?
A. perivesical abscess with fistula to bladder
B. acute tubular necrosis
C. renal papillary necrosis
D. xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis
Answer : C

25. What is false regarding urethral syndrome in postmenopausal women?
A. pH of vaginal secretions increases after menopause
B. estrogen deficiency manifests as trophic urethritis and atrophic vaginitis
C. topical conjugated estrogen replacement carries a significant risk of breast and endometrial cancers
D. manifestations might include obstructive symptoms and non-infectious cystitis
Answer : C

26. Which of the following does NOT cause sterile pyouria?
A. inadequately treated UTI
B. renal papillary necrosis
C. acute emphysematous pyelonephritis
D. urinary tract tuberculosis
Answer : C

27. What is false concerning epididymitis?
A. should be distinguished from testicular torsion in the emergency setting
B. viral epididymitis is commoner in the elderly
C. chronic epididymitis might complicate BPH
D. chronic epididymitis might require epididymectomy
Answer : B

28. What is essential on diagnosing bladder pain syndrome BPS/IC?
A. sterile pyuria on 3 consecutive cultures
B. the presence of glomerulations and/or Hunner`s ulcer on endoscopy
C. pain and discomfort related to the bladder
D. urgency and frequency with no documented infection
Answer : C

29. What is the best statement that describes the action of antiproliferative factor?
A. inhibits bladder epithelial cell proliferation
B. inhibits the bladder proliferative growth factors
C. stimulates the proliferation inhibitory factors
D. none of the above
Answer : A

30. Why could pyuria be sterile?
A. because standard laboratory culture specifications might not be favorable for growth of atypical organisms
B. because UTI could show fewer than 10 white cells/mm3 in urine
C. because laboratories may not report significant growth of a defined urinary pathogen
D. all of the above
Answer : D

31. Which of the following is NOT a treatment option for BPS/IC?
A. substitution cystoplasty and continent diversion
B. fulguration of a Hunner`s ulcer or hydrodistention
C. intravesical installation of silver nitrate or dimethyl sulfoxide
D. low dose external beam irradiation
Answer : D

32. What could NOT cause recurrent UTI in a 25 yrs. woman?
A. bladder neck suspension surgery
B. chronic constipation
C. poor genital hygiene
D. contraceptive diaphragm
Answer : A

33. What is false concerning sepsis syndrome?
A. poor tissue perfusion manifests as hyperlactemia and decreased capillary refill
B. acute oliguria indicates an organ dysfunction and circulatory collapse
C. septic shock is an extreme form of sepsis when hypotension persists despite adequate fluid resuscitation
D. hypotension is a sign of hyperdynamic circulation at an early septic shock
Answer : D

34. What is false concerning renal hydatid cysts?
A. might rupture into the collecting system causing (hydatiduria)and renal colic
B. are formed by the eggs of the tapeworm Echinococcus granulosus
C. most cysts are asymptomatic but might manifest as flank mass, dull pain, or hematuria
D. the most reliable diagnostic test uses partially purified hydatid arc 5 antigens in a double-diffusion test
Answer : B

35. What is true concerningBPS/IC?
A. the onset of symptoms is insidious
B. the lesion has no proven relation to bladder cancer
C. if left untreated, the bladder will turn small, contracted, with submucosal calcifications
D. a single positive urine culture refutes the diagnosis
Answer : B

36. What is false concerning the cystoscopic findings of interstitial cystitis?
A. Hunner`s ulcers are multiple ulcerative patches surrounded by mucosal congestion on the dome or lateral walls
B. ulcers might get distorted after overdistention, because discrete areas of mucosal scarring rupture during the procedure
C. in non-ulcerative type, overdistention demonstrates glomerulations on the dome and lateral walls
D. overdistention results in mucosal tears and submucosal hemorrhage
Answer : B

37. Management of acute epididymo-orchitis in hospitalized patients includes all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. scrotal support and elevation
B. ice packs
C. non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents
D. urethral catheterization
Answer : D

38. What is the commonest cause of relapsing UTI in males?
A. chronic epididymitis
B. epididymo-orchitis
C. chronic bacterial prostatitis
D. venereal cysto-urethritis
Answer : C

39. What is the most common serotype of HPV associated with squamous cell carcinoma of the penis?
A. 16
B. 18
C. 22
D. 12
Answer : A

40. What is the commonest intra-scrotal pathology in AIDS patients?
A. beaded vas deferens
B. testicular micrilithiasis
C. testicular atrophy
D. epididymal granuloma
Answer : C

41. What is NOT a complication of mumps orchitis?
A. infertility
B. hypogonadotropic hypogonadism
C. non seminomatous germ cell tumor
D. chronic orchalgia
Answer : C

42. What is false concerning inverted papilloma of the bladder?
A. It is an endophytic tumor of the transitional urothelium
B. harbors p53 gene mutations
C. presents with hematuria, dysuria, and irritative voiding
D. the lesion requires transurethral resection
Answer : B

43. What is false regarding viral cystitis?
A. in pediatrics, adenovirus types 11 and 21 could result in hemorrhagic cystitis
B. immunosuppressed children are especially susceptible to Cytomegalovirus and Adenoviruses 7, 21, and 35
C. in pediatrics, acute viral cystitis might present as acute retention of urine
D. classically, treatment should be culture-specific
Answer : D

44. What is false concerning Xanthogranulomatous Pyelonephritis?
A. is most commonly associated with Proteus or E. coli infection
B. is characterized by lipid-laden foamy macrophages
C. the overall prognosis is poor
D. it might involve adjacent structures or organs
Answer : C

45. What are the most commonly affected organs by genitourinary tuberculosis?
A. kidneys, prostate and epididymi
B. bladder, ureters and renal pelvis
C. vasa, scrotum and adrenals
D. testes, bladder neck and seminal vesicles
Answer : A

46. What is false concerning HIV infection?
A. AIDS patients in active infection show low CD4 + T-cell count
B. the diagnosis is confirmed by positive anti-HIV-1, anti-HIV-2 antibodies
C. patients receiving antiviral therapy could still be infectious
D. herpes simplex virus increases HIV replication in infected persons
Answer : B

47. A 48 yrs. woman presents with recurrent cystitis. Cystoscopy showed a raised bladder lesion. Biopsies from the lesion reveals Von Hansemann histiocytes, and Michaelis-Gutmann bodies. What is the treatment?
A. sulfonamide for several months
B. TUR of the bladder lesion followed by proper staging
C. radical cystectomy and urinary diversion
D. intravesical installation of mitomycin without irradiation
Answer : A

48. What is the most virulent factor for bacterial adherence?
A. P blood group
B. fimbria
C. pili
D. hemolysin
Answer : C

49. What is true concerning scrotal abscesses?
A. could be a complication of chronic epididymitis and orchalgia
B. testicular torsion must be excluded
C. infected hair follicles and scrotal lacerations are predisposing factors
D. urethral discharge is not uncommon presentation
Answer : C

50. No need for radiologic studies for recurrent UTI in:
A. children
B. the elderly
C. men
D. women
Answer : D