CTET - Urologic infections and inflammations 1000+ MCQ [Solved] PDF Download

1. Under which surgical wound classification, does diagnostic cystoscopy under sterile technique fit?
A. dirty - infected
B. contaminated
C. clean - contaminated
D. clean
Answer : C

2. What is false concerning acute pyelonephritis?
A. CBC reveals leucocytosis with predominance of neutrophils
B. contrast CT reveals one or more focal wedge-like swollen regions of the kidney parenchyma, sparing the cortex, and demonstrating reduced enhancement rim sign
C. in children, recurrent acute pyelonephritis might lead to renal scarring
D. in pregnancy, recurrent acute pyelonephritis might lead to preterm labor
Answer : B

3. What is the most commonly affected organ by genitourinary Brucellosis?
A. kidneys
B. bladder
C. prostate
D. epididymis
Answer : D

4. What is false regarding cystitis cystica?
A. most cysts appear as filling defects on cystography
B. most often found in the trigone area
C. the cyst lumens contain esinophilic secretions that may have a few inflammatory cells
D. cystitis cystica and cystitis glandularis are reactive urothelial changes
Answer : A

5. Irritative LUTS and dyspareunia in postmenopausal women are most likely to be due to:
A. giggle incontinence
B. estrogen deficiency
C. cystitis glandularis
D. cystitis cystica
Answer : B

6. Which of the following factors increases the risk of UTI due to promotion of microbial colonization?
A. neurogenic bladder
B. the use of spermicide
C. urinary catheterization
D. fecal incontinence
Answer : B

7. Patients with bladder pain syndrome have:
A. a history of repeated urologic and/or gynecologic procedures
B. 10 fold higher incidence of childhood voiding problems
C. 4 fold higher incidence of anxiety-depression syndrome
D. 6 fold higher incidence of psychosomatic disorders
Answer : B

8. What is false concerning Brucellosis epididymitis?
A. commonly presents with scrotal pain, swelling, fever, and leucocytosis
B. epididymo-orchitis is the most frequent genitourinary complication of brucellosis
C. epididymo-orchitis occurs in 10-15% of male patients with brucellosis
D. treatment includes doxycycline and rifampicin for 6-8 weeks
Answer : A

9. What is false concerning HIV infection?
A. AIDS patients in active infection show low CD4 + T-cell count
B. the diagnosis is confirmed by positive anti-HIV-1, anti-HIV-2 antibodies
C. patients receiving antiviral therapy could still be infectious
D. herpes simplex virus increases HIV replication in infected persons
Answer : B

10. What does NOT predispose to acute epididymitis is:
A. TUR ejaculatory duct
B. prolonged urethral catheterization
C. prostatic biopsy
D. vas ligation
Answer : C

11. What is false regarding malakoplakia?
A. is an uncommon granulomatous disease that affect the skin and/or urinary bladder
B. it might be due to a disturbed function of B lymphocytes
C. characterized by the presence of basophilic inclusion structure (Michaelis-Gutmann body)
D. it might be due to a defective phagolysosomal activity of monocytes or macrophages
Answer : B

12. What is true regarding balanoposthitis?
A. is best diagnosed by ascending urethrography
B. occurs mostly in diabetic and immunosuppressed patients
C. could be due to maceration injury, irritant dermatitis, or Candida
D. commonly presents with deep inguinal lymphadenopathy
Answer : C

13. In which segmented voided bladder (VB) specimen, the diagnosis of chronic prostatitis is confirmed?
A. VB1 and VB3
B. prostatic secretions and the VB3
C. prostatic secretions and the VB2
D. prostatic secretions and the VB1
Answer : B

14. What is the least important measure in indwelling catheter care?
A. cleansing the urethral meatus with aseptic agent
B. careful aseptic insertion of the catheter
C. maintenance of a closed drainage system
D. maintaining a dependant drainage system
Answer : A

15. What are the diagnostic findings on cystometrogram for BPS/IC?
A. discomfort on placing urethral catheter and pain on bladder filling
B. difficulty in zeroing the pressure and diminished response to first cough
C. low filling pressure but high voiding pressure
D. uninhibited bladder contractions with a relative bladder hypotonia
Answer : A

16. What is the average age of onset of BPS/IC patients?
A. 30
B. 40
C. 50
D. 60
Answer : B

17. What is false concerning sepsis syndrome?
A. poor tissue perfusion manifests as hyperlactemia and decreased capillary refill
B. acute oliguria indicates an organ dysfunction and circulatory collapse
C. septic shock is an extreme form of sepsis when hypotension persists despite adequate fluid resuscitation
D. hypotension is a sign of hyperdynamic circulation at an early septic shock
Answer : D

18. What is the most virulent factor for bacterial adherence?
A. P blood group
B. fimbria
C. pili
D. hemolysin
Answr : C

19. What is false concerning emphysematous cystitis?
A. the hallmark in the diagnosis is the cystoscopic findings
B. risk factors include transplant recipients
C. CT shows intramural and/or intraluminal gas in the bladder
D. requires surgical debridement and probably cystectomy
Answer : A

20. What is false about urinary catheters?
A. condom catheters carry less risk of UTI if compared to urethral
B. suprapubic catheters carry less risk of UTI if compared to urethral
C. latex catheters carry less risk of UTI if compared to silicon
D. intermittent catheterization carry less risk of UTI if compared to indwelling catheters
Answer : C

21. Using low-dose prophylactic or suppressive antimicrobials might be an option in treating the following type of prostatitis:
A. acute bacterial prostatitis presenting with abscess formation
B. recurrent or refractory chronic bacterial prostatitis
C. asymptomatic prostatitis with pyuria resistant to common antimicrobials
D. curiously, chronic inflammatory prostatitis could respond to low-dose suppressive antibiotic
Answer : B

22. What is the earliest clinical finding of urosepsis?
A. elevated body temperature
B. dropped blood pressure
C. elevated heart rate
D. reduced urine output
Answer : C

23. Asymptomatic bacteriuria should be treated in the following situations:
A. in the elderly
B. in long-term catheterized patient
C. in pregnancy
D. none of the above
Answer : C

24. What condition causes sterile pyuria?
A. urethral infection with trichomonas vaginalis
B. bladder infection with adenovirus
C. Kawasakis disease
D. all of the above
Answer : D

25. What is false concerning cystitis glandularis?
A. rarely, the urothelial cell nests show a central lumen lined by glandular epithelium
B. In some cases, it may form polypoid masses that mimic urothelial neoplasms
C. It might appear as multinodular exophytic mass seen on cystoscopy
D. cystitis cystica and cystitis glandularis frequently coexist in the same specimen
Answer : A

26. Which of the following does NOT cause sterile pyouria?
A. inadequately treated UTI
B. renal papillary necrosis
C. acute emphysematous pyelonephritis
D. urinary tract tuberculosis
Answer : C

27. What is false regarding pediatric renal parenchyma scarring?
A. chronic pyelonephritis and HTN lead to ESRD in 10% of the cases
B. neonatal symptoms of UTI are vague and non-specific, that delay the diagnosis and end in more scarring
C. despite adequate treatment, scarring continues after an attack of pyelonephritis as a chronic immune reaction against renal tubules
D. neonates have low intrarenal pelvic pressure, that predisposes to ascending infections
Answer : D

28. UPOINT system for phenotype categorization:
A. categorizes CP-CPPS, IC, and painful bladder syndrome based on 5 etiological principles
B. meant to classify CP-CPPS and IC patients into 6 domains
C. helps establish a reliable diagnosis of CP/CPPS or IC
D. the diagnostic scores of UPOINT depend on cystoscopy, TRUS, urine analysis and culture of uncommon microbes
Answer : B

29. What host`s factors do NOT increase the risk of developing infections?
A. advanced age
B. anatomical anomalies
C. poor drug compliance
D. smoking
Answer : C

30. What is false concerning corpora amylacea of the prostate?
A. are premalignant, and found in 1-6% of prostate biopsies
B. are small hyaline masses of unknown significance found in the prostate gland
C. they are degenerate cells or thickened secretions in the prostate ducts
D. might appear as prostate calcifications on X-ray KUB
Answer : A

31. What is the percentage of occurrence of Staphylococcus saprophyticus in symptomatic lower UTIs in young sexually active females?
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 15%
D. 20%
Answer : B

32. What is false regarding Gonorrheal STD in women?
A. nucleic acid amplification tests are the preferred to diagnose Gonococcal and Chlamydial infections
B. shows dark yellow, purulent, thick urethral discharge
C. the most common site of the infection is the endocervix
D. the incubation period is 2 3 weeks
Answer : D

33. In males, HIV infection increases the incidence of the following genitourinary tumors:
A. testicular
B. renal
C. penile
D. all of the above
Answer : D

34. What are the most commonly affected organs by genitourinary tuberculosis?
A. kidneys, prostate and epididymi
B. bladder, ureters and renal pelvis
C. vasa, scrotum and adrenals
D. testes, bladder neck and seminal vesicles
Answer : A

35. What is the most significant complication of papillary necrosis?
A. ureteral obstruction
B. proteinuria
C. stone formation
D. renal scarring
Answer : A

36. A 40 yrs. man presents with clinical acute pyelonephritis, on intravenous antibiotics for 4 days, CT shows a renal abscess. What is next in the treatment?
A. carry on the full antibiotic course, and then repeat CT
B. incision and drainage of the renal abscess with/without nephrectomy
C. the abscess size dictates management
D. perc. drainage of the renal abscess
Answer : C

37. What type of human Herpes virus is implicated in all forms of Kaposi sarcoma?
A. 2
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8
Answer : D

38. What is the mortality rate of emphysematous pyelonephritis?
A. 43%
B. 53%
C. 63%
D. 73%
Answer : A

39. What is true concerning granulomatous inflammation of the prostate?
A. is a common cause of elevated PSA level
B. might follow BCG treatment
C. is sequelae of untreated type III-b prostatitis
D. shows homogenous enhancement following Gd-DTPA on prostate MRI
Answer : B

40. What is false concerning radiation cystitis?
A. the average time from the beginning of radiation therapy to initial symptoms could be 2 4 weeks
B. treatment with stationary radiation, portals carry a higher risk of morbidity than treatment with rotating portals do
C. it occurs in about 10% of patients treated with definitive irradiation therapy for prostate cancer after 10 years
D. most cases are mildly affected and require no specific therapy
Answer : A

41. What is false regarding Herpes simplex (HSV) infection?
A. characterized by neurovirulence
B. the incubation period of primary genital herpes is 2 3 weeks
C. HSV can be isolated in the urine
D. HSV-1 infection causes urethritis more often than HSV-2 does
Answer : B

42. A 48 yrs. woman presents with recurrent cystitis. Cystoscopy showed a raised bladder lesion. Biopsies from the lesion reveals Von Hansemann histiocytes, and Michaelis-Gutmann bodies. What is the treatment?
A. sulfonamide for several months
B. TUR of the bladder lesion followed by proper staging
C. radical cystectomy and urinary diversion
D. intravesical installation of mitomycin without irradiation
Answer : A

43. What is false in the treatment and prevention of STDs?
A. antibiotic therapy is recommended for affected individuals with documented trichomonal infection and sexual partners even if asymptomatic
B. empirical treatment for gonococcal urethritis should cover chlamydia trachomatis
C. consistent and proper usage of condoms is estimated to prevent HIV transmission by approximately 80 to 95%
D. vaccinations are available for the prevention of human papillomavirus, N. gonorrhea, chlamydia trachomatis
Answer : D

44. What is false regarding urethral syndrome in postmenopausal women?
A. pH of vaginal secretions increases after menopause
B. estrogen deficiency manifests as trophic urethritis and atrophic vaginitis
C. topical conjugated estrogen replacement carries a significant risk of breast and endometrial cancers
D. manifestations might include obstructive symptoms and non-infectious cystitis
Answer : C

45. What could cause unresolved bacteriuria?
A. drug resistance
B. non-compliance
C. the presence of persistent pathology
D. all of the above
Answer : D

46. What is false concerning foreign body cystitis?
A. most commonly due to indwelling catheters
B. the areas of inflammation are usually confined to the lateral walls or the dome of the bladder
C. radiographic changes are nonspecific or present as bullous edema
D. indwelling catheters are associated with squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder
Answer : B

47. HIV infection increases the incidence of the following cancers, EXCEPT:
A. Kaposi sarcoma,
B. Hodgkin lymphoma
C. non-Hodgkin lymphoma
D. cervical cancer
Answer : B

48. Why could pyuria be sterile?
A. because standard laboratory culture specifications might not be favorable for growth of atypical organisms
B. because UTI could show fewer than 10 white cells/mm3 in urine
C. because laboratories may not report significant growth of a defined urinary pathogen
D. all of the above
Answer : D

49. What is the laboratory differentiation between type III-a and type III-b prostatitis?
A. the cytological examination of the urine and/or EPS
B. transrectal ultrasonographic examination
C. the presence of ?10 WBCs/HPF in the urine with negative culture in type III-b
D. the positive urine culture, and negative EPS support type III-a
Answer : A

50. What is false regarding viral cystitis?
A. in pediatrics, adenovirus types 11 and 21 could result in hemorrhagic cystitis
B. immunosuppressed children are especially susceptible to Cytomegalovirus and Adenoviruses 7, 21, and 35
C. in pediatrics, acute viral cystitis might present as acute retention of urine
D. classically, treatment should be culture-specific
Answer : D