LSAT - Urology Basic Science 1000+ MCQ [Solved] PDF Download

1. Which statement is false concerning capacitation of spermatozoa?
A. occurs after acrosome reaction
B. entails removal of a glycoprotein layer
C. it is a biochemical event of sperm maturation
D. changes occur in the female genital tract
Answer : A

2. Which statement is false concerning smegma?
A. it is the white secretion produced under the foreskin in males
B. it has a crucial role in penile cancer development
C. it contains lysozymes, chymotrypsin, neutrophil elastase and cytokines
D. female smegma can be found between the labia
Answer : B

3. What is the narrowest part of the ureter?
A. uretero-pelvic junction
B. uretero-vesical junction
C. where ureters cross the pelvic brim
D. where ureters cross the common iliac bifurcation
Answer : B

4. Which of the following conditions could happen in chronic pancreatitis and malabsorption syndrome with steatorrhea?
A. hyperoxaluria
B. hypercalciuria
C. hyperuricosuria
D. hyperphosphateuria
Answer : A

5. What is the best initial therapy for hyponatremic dehydration?
A. administration of hypertonic saline
B. administration of crystalloid
C. administration of normal saline
D. administration of ringer lactate
Answer : C

6. Which of the following is NOT a cause of hypocitraturia?
A. high protein diet
B. hypokalaemia
C. proximal renal tubular acidosis
D. idiopathic
Answer : C

7. In utero, which hormone stimulates the development of the prostate gland?
A. estradiol
B. DHT
C. FSH
D. testosterone
Answer : B

8. All of the following conditions are related to obesity syndrome, EXCEPT:
A. super fertility
B. increase aromatization reaction
C. increase resistance to circulating insulin
D. sleep apnea
Answer : A

9. How many days does spermatogenesis take in the man?
A. 16
B. 32
C. 64
D. 90
Answer : C

10. Which of the following process(es) is (are) reversible?
A. 5?-reductase enzyme reduces testosterone to DHT
B. aromatase enzyme reduces testosterone to estrogen
C. PSA molecule binds to ?1-antichymotrypsin and ?2-macroglobulin
D. none of the above
Answer : D

11. How long post bilateral orchiectomy, will patients be functionally castrated?
A. immediately
B. after 2 hrs.
C. after 12 hrs.
D. after 24 hrs.
Answer : B

12. Which structure is a part of the renal hilum?
A. renal pelvis
B. branches of the renal artery
C. tributaries of renal vein
D. all of the above
Answer : D

13. At which type of renal tubular acidosis (RTA), typically, potassium levels increase?
A. type 1
B. type 2
C. type 3
D. type 4
Answer : D

14. Which of the following is NOT a sex accessory tissue?
A. the prostate gland
B. seminal vesicles
C. epididymi
D. bulbourethral glands
Answer : C

15. In utero, which hormone stimulates the development of Wolffian ducts?
A. estradiol
B. DHT
C. FSH
D. testosterone
Answer : D

16. What is false concerning the urinary bladder anatomy?
A. as it distends, it peels off the peritoneum from the abdominal wall
B. the interureteric ridge is located between the 2 ureteric orifices and the uvula vesicae
C. Waldeyer`s sheath covers only the distal ureter and forms the deep trigone
D. in adults, it is percussible over the abdomen when contains at least 150 ml
Answer : B

17. Which of the prostate medications could result in retrograde ejaculation?
A. tamsulosin
B. doxazosin
C. dutasteride
D. alfuzosin
Answer : A

18. Which drug does NOT result in urinary retention?
A. terazosin, antihypertensive
B. benzodiazepines, psychotropic medicine
C. levodopa, anti-Parkinsonism medicine
D. brimonidine, glaucoma eye drops
Answer : A

19. Which of the prostate medications could result in significant hypotension?
A. finasteride
B. prazosin
C. silodosin
D. vardenafil
Answer : B

20. Which disease is described best by the following manifestations: grand mal epilepsy, mental retardation, hypertension, angiomyolipoma, adenoma sebaceum, bilateral enlarged kidneys, and normal renal function?
A. autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease
B. von Hippel-Lindau disease
C. tuberous sclerosis
D. Sturge-Webber syndrome
Answer : C

21. What is the function of PSA in semen?
A. increases semen volume
B. has antimicrobial activity
C. liquefies the seminal coagulum
D. decreases semen pH
Answer : C

22. What does make UTI more common in mid-aged females than in males?
A. short female urethra
B. pregnancy
C. vaginal colonization with enterobacteria
D. all the above
Answer : D

23. What is false concerning the collecting system structures of a typical kidney?
A. the renal pelvis could be intra or extra renal
B. the renal pelvis divides into 2 or 3 major calyces
C. major calyces divide into 2 or 3 minor calyces
D. unlike lateral calyces, polar calyces are often paired
Answer : D

24. What causes Cushing`s disease is:
A. bilateral adrenal hyperplasia
B. pituitary over secretion of ACTH
C. exogenous administration of glucocorticoids
D. immune-mediated disease
Answer : B

25. Which of the following is NOT a side effect of hydrochlorothiazide?
A. hypercholesterolemia
B. hyperuricemia
C. hypoglycemia
D. hypercalcemia
Answer : C

26. Between which 2 fascial planes does the prostatic neurovascular bundle travel?
A. prostatic fascia and levator fascia
B. prostate capsule and prostatic fascia
C. Denonvilliers fascia and prostate capsule
D. Denonvilliers fascia and endopelvic fascia
Answer : A

27. Which of the following is false regarding zona glomeruloza?
A. the most superficial layer of the adrenal cortex
B. responses to increased potassium levels, renin or decreased renal blood flow
C. it causes pheochromocytoma
D. secretes aldosterone
Answer : C

28. Which innervations mediate detumescence?
A. cavernous nerves
B. dorsal nerves of the penis
C. sympathetic nervous system
D. parasympathetic nervous system
Answer : C

29. When should a 70 yrs. man with 40 ml prostate volume, and total PSA of 2.0 ng/ml, go for a prostate biopsy?
A. if PSA reading had exceeded 2.7 ng/ml over 12 months
B. if free PSA reading was less than 0.4 ng/ml
C. if total PSA reading was greater than 8 ng/ml
D. any of the above
Answer : D

30. From where does the main parasympathetic efferent innervation to the pelvic plexus arise?
A. S1
B. S2-S4
C. T11-L2
D. L3-S1
Answer : B

31. Which artery is NOT a branch of the anterior division of internal iliac artery?
A. superior vesical artery
B. inferior vesical artery
C. superior gluteal artery
D. inferior gluteal artery
Answer : C

32. Which of the following does NOT affect serum creatinine?
A. gender
B. age
C. obstructing stone at left lower ureter
D. rhabdomyolysis
Answer : C

33. Which zone of the prostate originates from the Wolffian duct tissue:
A. central zone
B. peripheral zone
C. transitional zone
D. periurethral glands
Answer : A

34. Which statement is false concerning microhematuria?
A. malignancy is identified in patients presenting with microhematuria more than in patients presenting with gross hematuria
B. microscopic hematuria is defined as > 3 red blood cells per high powered field (RBC/hpf) on a single specimen
C. warrants full hematuria workup
D. history of cigarette smoking is of significance
Answer : A

35. Which type of renal tubular acidosis (RTA) is more likely to form renal stones?
A. type 1
B. type 2
C. type 3
D. type 4
Answer : A

36. Which of the following might cause sterile pyuria?
A. renal tuberculosis
B. urinary tract stones
C. interstitial cystitis
D. all of the above
Answer : D

37. Which part of the prostate prevents the seminal fluid from entering the bladder during ejaculation?
A. central zone
B. peripheral zone
C. preprostatic tissue
D. anterior fibromuscular stroma
Answer : C

38. Which type of renal stone crystals is known as coffin lid?
A. oxalate
B. struvite
C. urate
D. cystine
Answer : B

39. Which of the following is false regarding Addison`s disease?
A. autoimmune disease in 70% of the cases
B. diagnosed by the rapid ACTH stimulation test
C. characterized by low serum sodium and high potassium
D. may coexist with hyperthyroidism and diabetes mellitus
Answer : D

40. Which of the following lab results indicates prerenal failure?
A. serum BUN : creatinine > 20
B. urine [Na] < 30 mEq/L
C. Na excretion fraction < 1
D. all of the above
Answer : D

41. What is the most significant complication of cyclosporine?
A. hepatic toxicity
B. renal toxicity
C. neural toxicity
D. cardiac toxicity
Answer : B

42. Which of the renal artery occlusive conditions, commonly, do NOT affect renal function?
A. intimal fibroplasia
B. medial fibroplasia
C. medial hyperplasia
D. serosal hyperplasia
Answer : B

43. Beside renal excretion of sodium, what does atrial natriuretic hormone cause?
A. constriction of renalafferent arterioles
B. renin inhibition
C. aldosterone stimulation
D. rise in systemic blood pressure
Answer : B

44. Which of the following does NOT increase in prostate cancer?
A. human kallikrein 2
B. pro-PSA
C. free PSA
D. complexed PSA
Answer : C

45. Which statement is true about the female urethra?
A. harder to catheterize when compared to the male urethra
B. 4 inch long
C. opens into the vestibule below the clitoris
D. gets wider at the post-menopausal age
Answer : C

46. Which period of intrauterine life does the process of organ formation (organogenesis) take place?
A. 9 12 weeks
B. 12 15 weeks
C. 15 18 weeks
D. 18 21 weeks
Answer : A

47. What is the nature of the prostate-specific antigen?
A. protease
B. lyase
C. carboxylase
D. hydrolase
Answer : A

48. What is false concerning renal vasculature?
A. there are 4 surgical segments of the kidney, based on the segmental artery distribution
B. along the kidney convexity, there is an avascular plane
C. there are no collaterals between segmental arteries
D. in < 10%, the posterior branch is the first to branch off the renal artery
Answer : D

49. What could cause autonomic dysreflexia?
A. full bladder or rectum
B. tooth extraction
C. hypertension medications
D. uncontrolled diabetes mellitus
Answer : A

50. What are the first and second most common zones from where prostate cancers arise?
A. central then transitional
B. peripheral then transitional
C. peripheral then central
D. transitional then central
Answer : B