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Radiologic Examination MCQ Solved Paper for SSC CGL

Thursday 9th of March 2023

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1. Using CT scanning, which solid kidney mass is well-defined, heterogeneous tumor, located in the renal cortex and containing areas of fat density of -20 HU or less. No calcifications, but some areas of enhancement?
A. RCC
B. metastases
C. angiomyolipoma
D. oncocytoma
Answer : C
2. What nuclear medicine study can diagnose interstitial nephritis?
A. DTPA
B. DMSA
C. gallium-67
D. MAG-3
Answer : C
3. By ultrasonography, when kidneys appear darker than the liver, they are:
A. hypoechoic
B. hyperechoic
C. anechoic
D. isoechoic
Answer : A
4. What is false concerning Tc-99m DMSA?
A. diseases affecting the proximal convoluted tubules inhibit DMSA uptake
B. it is ideal to assess UPJ obstruction in adults
C. gentamicin and cisplatin inhibit the DMSA uptake
D. it allows better assessment of differential renal function
Answer : B
5. On clinical examination, what accidental finding has NO connection to renal cancer?
A. unilateral hydrocele
B. bilateral varicocele
C. calcifications at the renal area on plain KUB film
D. painless hematuria
Answer : A
6. What is the hallmark finding on plain KUB of bladder exstrophy?
A. malunion of lumbar and/or sacral vertebral bodies
B. pelvic bone diastasis
C. sacral agenesis
D. fracture of anterior pubic rami
Answer : B
7. How does a full bladder appear on ultrasonography?
A. hyperechoic
B. hypoechoic
C. isoechoic
D. anechoic
Answer : D
8. What is the minimum estimate of GFR to take gadolinium-based contrast agents?
A. more than 30 mL/min/1.73 m2
B. more than 60 mL/min/1.73 m2
C. more than 90 mL/min/1.73 m2
D. none of the above
Answer : A
9. Using ultrasonography, which testicular lesion is cystic with heterogeneous echoes representing a mixture of mucinous and/or sebaceous material with or without hair follicles, cartilages, and bones?
A. non-seminomatous germ cell tumors
B. acute bleed on top of old hematoma
C. mature teratoma
D. sex cord stromal tumors
Answer : C
10. Using CT scanning, which solid kidney mass is sharply demarcated with uniform enhancement and often has a central scar?
A. RCC
B. metastases
C. angiomyolipoma
D. oncocytoma
Answer : D
11. Using CT, which solid kidney mass is like a bulge of the renal contour characterized by normal corticomedullary patterns?
A. prominent columns of Bertin
B. xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis
C. lymphoma
D. renal infarction
Answer : A
12. Which statement concerning phlebolith is false?
A. can be mistaken for a ureteral stone
B. is a small single, usually spiky, calcification within a vein
C. the amount of phleboliths increases with age
D. appears more often on the left than on the right side of the pelvis
Answer : B
13. Which condition does NOT show a false negative result for hydronephrosis on ultrasonic examination?
A. forniceal rupture
B. drained renal pelvis
C. high urine output
D. acute obstruction
Answer : C
14. What matter does correspond to zero Hounsfield units?
A. air
B. water
C. fat
D. bone
Answer : B
15. To which class of Bosniak system of renal cysts does an oval renal parenchymal cyst of uniform water density filling, with attenuation of ? 20 HU, thin, non-calcified wall, and no contrast enhancement; belong to?
A. class 1
B. class 2
C. class 3
D. class 4
Answer : A
16. Which of the following is NOT an indication of retrograde pyelography?
A. evaluation of probable ureteral obstruction
B. in conjunction with ureteroscopy
C. evaluation of hematuria
D. evaluation of probable ureterovesical reflux
Answer : D
17. Which condition could present as a filling defect in the bladder on IVU study?
A. blood clot
B. fibro-epithelial polyp
C. sloughed renal papilla
D. all of the above
Answer : D
18. Using ultrasonography, which testicular lesion is described as a solid, round, homogeneous, low-reflectivity tumor mass, with no calcification?
A. seminoma
B. embryonal cell tumor
C. mixed germ cell tumor
D. epidermoid cyst
Answer : A
19. What is (are) the indication(s) of renal artery embolization?
A. bleeding angiomyolipomas
B. an alternative to nephrectomy in severe uncontrolled hypertension among patients with end-stage renal disease
C. renal artery aneurysms or symptomatic AV malformations
D. all of the above
Answer : D
20. Regarding acute renal infections, what is the least diagnostic radionuclide study for detecting an inflammatory focus?
A. hippuran I-131
B. technetium-99m
C. gallium-67
D. indium-111labelled WBC
Answer : D
21. Using ultrasonography, which testicular lesion is of low reflectivity with irregular borders, hypervascular rims but no internal vascularity to mention?
A. intratesticular hematoma
B. testicular abscess
C. orchitis
D. sex cord stromal tumors
Answer : B
22. Which ultrasound mode is able to depict motion direction and flow velocity?
A. grey-scale
B. simultaneous bilateral views
C. color Doppler
D. power Doppler
Answer : C
23. What is the optimal time for viewing the renal parenchyma after injecting a contrast material during IVU study?
A. 0 minute
B. 5 minutes
C. 10 minutes
D. renal parenchyma does not appear on IVU
Answer : A
24. Which of the following is NOT an indication of renal arteriography?
A. preparation for donor nephrectomy
B. advanced RCC in the right kidney
C. renal artery stenosis
D. oncocytoma in the left kidney
Answer : D
25. What is the improper usage of TRUS?
A. to evaluate ejaculatory duct obstruction in infertility case
B. to screen for prostate cancers
C. to take prostate biopsies
D. to place interstitial radiotherapy seeds
Answer : B
26. On staging left kidney RCC using enhanced CT, the radiologist must look for:
A. extension of the tumor to the diaphragm
B. extension of the tumor to the right atrium
C. the density of calcifications
D. the amount and bilaterality of cysts formation
Answer : B
27. What is true concerning Tc-99m DTPA?
A. Its uptake by glomerular filtration is almost 100%
B. It helps evaluate cortical structure and morphology
C. It provides a static picture of kidneys when compared to MAG3
D. it binds to the sulfhydryl groups in proximal tubules resulting in much higher resolution pinhole SPECT imaging
Answer : A
28. Which of the following is an indication of VCUG?
A. repeated febrile UTI in children
B. evaluating a probable posterior urethral valve
C. a & b
D. none of the above
Answer : C
29. Ultrasonic 3.5 MHz curved array probe is suitable to detect:
A. epididymal cysts
B. testicular tumors
C. renal stones
D. penile vasculature
Answer : C
30. Which statement is false concerning complications of left renal artery embolization?
A. embolizing the non-target artery might occur
B. severe pain at the renal area could occur
C. complications depend on the embolic agent
D. reactive left pulmonary edema
Answer : D
31. What is false concerning ureteric jets?
A. obstruction of the upper urinary tract may increase renal pelvis pressure and delay or decrease pelvis peristaltic rates
B. measured by color Doppler flow mapping in transverse scans at the suprapubic region
C. patients with ureteral stents are the ideal
D. adequate hydration is necessary
Answer : C
32. On sagittal plane of midline TRUS, which structure might NOT be visible?
A. peripheral zone of the prostate
B. ejaculatory duct
C. tip of the right seminal vesicle
D. tip of the left lateral lobe of the prostate
Answer : C
33. Which statement is true concerning renal ultrasonography?
A. end-stage renal failure kidneys look small and hypoechoic
B. it is more accurate on diagnosing cystic lesions than solid masses
C. it is able to detect tumors as small as 2 mm
D. cortical carbuncle might be mistaken for hydronephrosis
Answer : B
34. What should type II diabetic patients on metformin do when going for intravenous contrast urography to avoid biguanide lactic acidosis?
A. take urine acidifiers
B. withhold metformin the day before the study and restart 48 hrs. later
C. get premedicated by steroids and antihistamines
D. decrease metformin dose and turn to insulin
Answer : B
35. What is (are) the characteristic finding(s) of testicular torsion on color Doppler ultrasonography?
A. the classic blue dot sign
B. thick, short, edematous spermatic cord
C. absence of intratesticular blood flow
D. increased epididymal blood flow
Answer : C
36. What is correct concerning sound waves?
A. The higher the frequency, the deeper tissue penetration
B. The higher the frequency, the better the axial resolution
C. low-frequency transducers are of 6 to 10 MHz
D. the deeper tissue penetration, the better axial resolution
Answer : B
37. How does fluid appear on T2-weighted MR images?
A. dark
B. intermediate
C. bright
D. none of the above
Answer : C
38. Which statement is false regarding magnetic resonance urography (MRU)?
A. small non-obstructive calculi might be missed at MRU performed for the evaluation of hematuria
B. in pediatrics, performing a dynamic contrast-enhanced imaging helps in evaluating crossing vessels in the setting of UPJ obstruction
C. the success of static-fluid MR urography depends on the presence of fluid within the urinary system regardless of renal function
D. MRU at 3T, carries the risk of nephrogenic systemic fibrosis
Answer : D
39. Which structure can NOT be assessed by TRUS of the prostate?
A. ejaculatory duct
B. vas deferens
C. seminal vesicles
D. rectal wall
Answer : B
40. Which condition tops the differential diagnoses list of CT picture of Xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis?
A. renal tuberculosis
B. renal abscess
C. renal cell carcinoma
D. angiomyolipoma
Answer : A
41. In routine practice, when do urologists request plain skull X-ray?
A. advanced prostatic cancer
B. central diabetes insipidus
C. pituitary adenoma
D. a & c
Answer : D
42. Which radiological modality carries the highest radiation hazard?
A. nuclear medicine
B. ultrasonography
C. X-ray fluoroscopy
D. intravenous urography
Answer : C
43. Which statement is false concerning plain KUB film?
A. reliable tool to exclude urinary calculi
B. calcifications at renal area might lead to the discovery of renal cancers
C. can detect soft tissues
D. fecoliths and phleboliths could be mistaken for calculi
Answer : A
44. Which of the following is false concerning retrograde urethrogram?
A. coning at the bulbar urethra is normal
B. segmental narrowing at bulbar urethra is normal
C. multiple round filling defects could be air bubbles
D. indicated in urethral trauma cases
Answer : B
45. What is the emergency treatment of intravenous contrast allergy?
A. epinephrine
B. atropine
C. hydrocortisone
D. antihistamine
Answer : A
46. Ultrasonic waves, in nature, are:
A. mechanical waves
B. radar waves
C. microwaves
D. radio waves
Answer : A
47. What is the signal characteristic of renal stones on MRU?
A. high signal on T1-weighted images
B. high signal on T2-weighted images
C. low signal on T1-weighted images
D. none of the above
Answer : D
48. Which statement is false concerning diuretic nuclear scintigraphy renogram?
A. an elimination T ½ < 10 minutes indicates obstructed system
B. the diuretic must be given at the maximum kidney activity
C. If ureteral stents are in place, the bladder catheter must be unclamped
D. 99mTc-MAG3 is the agent of choice to study differential renal function and obstruction
Answer : A
49. Which condition does NOT show a false positive result for hydronephrosis on ultrasonic examination?
A. hydrocalicosis
B. extrarenal pelvis
C. parapelvic cyst
D. class 2 Bosniak renal cyst
Answer : D
50. Which of the following is NOT an indication of static cystography?
A. evaluating a probable bladder rupture
B. evaluating a probable colovesical or vesicovaginal fistulae
C. evaluating a probable intravesical pathology
D. evaluating a probable bladder diverticula
Answer : B

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