RBI Grade B officer - Urinary Calculus Disease 1000+ MCQ [Solved] PDF Download

1. What could high level of sulfate in 24-hr. urine collection mean?
A. dissolving homogenous nucleation
B. high tendency to form cystine sulfate stones
C. indicates the amount of dietary protein
D. post ESWL therapy
Answer : C

2. What medication could help in managing carbonate apatite stones?
A. ?-Mercaptopropionylglycine
B. acetohydroxamic acid
C. carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
D. xanthine oxidase inhibitors
Answer : B

3. What risk factor(s) promote(s) stone formation?
A. dehydration
B. metabolic disorders
C. congenital anomalies
D. all of the above
Answer : A

4. What is the preferred drug for medical expulsive therapy for lower ureteral stones?
A. furosemide
B. tamsulosin
C. nifedipine
D. diclofenac
Answer : B

5. What situation carries lower risk for lung injury during supracostal upper pole access for PCNL?
A. placing the patient in anti-Trendelenburg position
B. making the puncture under local anesthesia
C. injection Co2 gas to create a safety space under the diaphragm before puncturing
D. making the puncture during full expiration
Answer : D

6. What is false regarding hypomagnesuric calcium nephrolithiasis?
A. it is characterized by low urinary magnesium and citrate
B. magnesium increases renal tubular citrate resorption
C. diarrheal is a remarkable side effect of magnesium therapy
D. potassium-magnesium preparations might restore urinary magnesium and citrate levels
Answer : B

7. What is the fatality risk if a triple-phosphate staghorn stone left untreated?
A. 0 10%
B. 10 20%
C. 20 30%
D. 30 40%
Answer : C

8. What does NOT appear as a filling defect in the renal pelvis on IVU?
A. fungal ball
B. radiolucent stone
C. urothelial growth
D. upper end of DJ ureteral stent
Answer : D

9. Which of the following bacteria split urea?
A. Klebsiella pneumonia
B. Morganella morganii
C. Proteus mirabilis
D. all of the above
Answer : D

10. What congenital anomaly is unlikely to result in stone formation?
A. left ureterocele
B. bifid right renal pelvis
C. neurogenic bladder
D. bilateral UPJ stenosis
Answer : B

11. What is the least likely condition to form bladder stones?
A. spinal cord injury
B. senile enlargement of prostate
C. augmented bladder
D. neurogenic hyper-reflexive bladder
Answer : D

12. What is false concerning neonatal nephrolithiasis?
A. frequently caused by loop diuretics
B. stones are often radiolucent
C. may be reversed by the use of thiazides
D. low calcium-to-creatinine ratio predicts stones resolution
Answer : B

13. What is false concerning recurrent stone formation?
A. best treated by total parathyroidectomy
B. first-time stone formers are at a 50% risk for recurrence
C. males have higher recurrence rate than females
D. stone formers produce stones of the same type every time
Answer : A

14. When urine reaches a high tendency to form stones, the situation is called:
A. lithogenic anion to cation ratio
B. Randall cut off
C. saturation index
D. solubility product
Answer : C

15. What is the proper sequence of the following stones when ordered from most radiopaque to most radiolucent as they appear on plain Xray film?
A. Ca.oxalate, Ca.phosphate, Na.urate, cystine
B. Ca.phosphate, Ca.oxalate, cystine, Na.urate
C. Ca.oxalate, Ca.phosphate, cystine, Na.urate
D. Ca.phosphate, Ca.oxalate, Na.urate, cystine
Answer : B

16. In what kind of renal stones do antibiotics help most?
A. indinavir
B. magnesium ammonium phosphate
C. xanthine
D. matrix
Answer : B

17. What statement is false concerning the use of desmopressin (DDAVP) in renal colic patients?
A. it causes reduction in the mean intra-ureteral pressure
B. it reduces the pain of acute renal colic
C. it has a direct relaxing effect on the renal pelvis and ureteral musculature
D. it is indicated when stones are ? 4 mm in diameter
Answer : D

18. What sequence of ureteral parts represents the most to least favorable stone response to ESWL treatment?
A. upper, lower, mid
B. lower, upper, mid
C. mid, upper, lower
D. mid, lower, upper
Answer : A

19. ESWL in pediatric patients is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. often need sedation or anesthesia
B. vesico-ureteral reflux must be excluded
C. pediatrics have a higher clearance rate of stones when compared to adults
D. safety measures must be taken to avoid lung contusions
Answer : B

20. What does the treatment of hyperuricemia with urate stones include?
A. oral potassium sodium hydrogen citrate granules
B. increase hydration
C. allopurinol
D. all of the above
Answer : D

21. What is the most favorable stone characteristics for laparoscopic and robotic approaches for the treatment of a kidney stone?
A. a stone in the lower calyx with a wide mouth of infundibulum and obtuse lower calyx to ureter angle
B. a stone in an anterior group calyceal diverticulum with thin overlying renal parenchyma
C. 5 mm calcium-containing stone in an intrarenal pelvis and wide UPJ
D. 6 years post anatrophic nephrolithotomy, recurrent mid calyceal stone
Answer : B

22. What type of shockwaves is generated by spark-gap technology?
A. piezoelectric
B. electrohydraulic
C. electromagnetic
D. microexplosive
Answer : B

23. What is a remarkable disadvantage of ultrasonic imaging for ESWL?
A. localization of stones in the ureter is difficult or impossible
B. inability to visualize stones breaking down in real time
C. c. patient`s position on ESWL table is uncomfortable
D. d. inability to visualize radiolucent stones
Answer : A

24. What is the most important parameter that determines the treatment modality of a kidney stone?
A. stone chemical composition
B. stone burden
C. first stone vs. recurrent
D. stone density
Answer : B

25. What is false concerning PCNL in horseshoe kidneys?
A. the preferred access into the collecting system is through a posterior calyx
B. the posterior calyceal group is typically more medial than in the normal kidney
C. in most cases the lower pole calyces are posterior
D. it is desirable to make an upper pole collecting system puncture
Answer : C

26. What kind of stones is more likely to recur with infections if not removed completely?
A. urate
B. triple phosphate
C. oxalate monohydrate
D. matrix
Answer : B

27. Why do patients with cystic fibrosis form stones?
A. because urine and body secretions are highly concentrated
B. due to renal leak hypercalciuria
C. as a result of distal renal tubular acidosis type I
D. because of reduced or absent of oxalobacter formigenes colonization
Answer : D

28. Ureteral stones of ? 7 mm:
A. should be treated with more analgesics
B. must undergo metabolic worked out
C. are unlikely to pass out spontaneously
D. chemolysis should be tried first
Answer : C

29. What is false concerning urethral stones?
A. stones at posterior urethra could be pushed back to the bladder
B. stones at anterior urethra have to undergo a trial of milking out, using copious intra-urethral xylocaine gel
C. often respond to a two-week course of tamsulosin
D. respond to Holmium laser treatment
Answer : C

30. What is the treatment of choice for a 15 mm stone in a mid calyceal diverticulum?
A. ESWL
B. PCNL with fulguration of the diverticulum
C. ureteroscopy with fulguration of the diverticulum
D. pyelolithotomy with diverticulectomy
Answer : B

31. What is false concerning primary bladder stones?
A. commonly occur in patients with senile prostatic enlargement
B. common in children exposed to low-protein, low-phosphate diet
C. rarely recur after treatment
D. respond to ESWL
Answer : A

32. What is (are) the indication(s) of ureteral stenting before ESWL?
A. stones in a solitary kidney
B. ureteral stones causing bilateral obstructions
C. a kidney stone of ? 2.5 cm in size
D. all of the above
Answer : D

33. What medications do NOT cause renal stones?
A. ciprofloxacin
B. indinavir
C. thiazides
D. triamterene
Answer : C

34. What is the least serious complications of PCNL?
A. uncontrollable bleeding
B. incomplete removal of stones
C. pneumothorax
D. colonic perforation
Answer : B

35. What type of stones do laxative abusers might develop?
A. ammonium urate
B. sodium urate
C. calcium oxalate
D. calcium phosphate
Answer : A

36. Which of the following is a relative contra-indication to ESWL?
A. renal insufficiency
B. active urinary tract infection
C. uncorrected bleeding disorder
D. third trimester pregnancy
Answer : A

37. When should renal stone patients be evaluated for metabolic diseases?
A. when stones are multiple and/or recurrent
B. when stones form in childhood
C. in cases where nephrocalcinosis and urolithiasis are present
D. all of the above
Answer : D

38. What could high dietary protein result in?
A. increase urinary calcium, oxalate, and uric acid excretion
B. decrease urinary calcium; but increase oxalate, and uric acid excretion
C. increased urinary calcium and uric acid; but decrease oxalate excretion
D. decreased urinary calcium, oxalate, and uric acid excretion
Answer : A

39. Expectant therapy for ureteral stones is indicated when:
A. stone size of ? 4 mm
B. stone burden of ? 22 mm
C. there is a distal partial obstruction
D. the patient has end-stage renal failure
Answer : A

40. How is primary oxaluria treated?
A. terminal ilium resection
B. liver transplantation
C. kidney transplantation
D. regular hemodialysis
Answer : B

41. What type of urinary diversion carries the highest risk of stone formation?
A. Kock pouch
B. Neobladder-to-urethra diversion
C. Florida pouch
D. Indiana pouch
Answer : A

42. What is the treatment of choice for a 15 mm stone in the lower calyx with a narrow infundibulum?
A. ESWL
B. PCNL
C. radial nephrolithotomy
D. pyelolithotomy with ureteral stenting
Answer : B

43. What stones are radiopaque on plain X-ray film?
A. 2,8 dihydroxyadenine stones
B. sulfa medications-induced stones
C. calcium oxalate stones
D. matrix stones
Answer : C

44. What parameter is NOT considered in the stone burden concept?
A. the surface area of the stones
B. the volume of the stones
C. the density of the stones
D. the number of the stones
Answer : C

45. What could the discomfort experienced during ESWL session be related to?
A. the energy density of the shock waves as they pass through the skin
B. the size of the focal point
C. a & b
D. none of the above
Answer : C

46. What is true concerning the use of intravenous fluids in renal colic cases?
A. patients should be given large amounts of fluids to hasten stones passage
B. fluids are given to keep the patient well hydrated
C. the recommended regimen is 2 L of ringer lactate over 2 hours
D. fluids are contraindicated if desmopressin (DDAVP) was given
Answer : B

47. Which event is unlikely to occur after placing a DJ ureteral stent?
A. can be forgotten in place
B. vesico-renal reflux
C. calyceal perforation
D. detrusor irritability and/or hematuria
Answer : C

48. Which of the following factors, positively, affect lower calyceal stone clearance after ESWL?
A. short and wide infundibulum
B. large lower-pole infundibulo-pelvic angle
C. the adjunct usage of PCNL
D. all of the above
Answer : D

49. What is true concerning uric acid stones?
A. they are metabolic stones that form at high urinary pH
B. they score 800 1000 HU on CT
C. only 25% of affected patients have Gout disease
D. affected patients must stop eating animal protein
Answer : C

50. What is false concerning cystine stones?
A. have diagnostic hexagonal crystals
B. dont respond to ESWL therapy
C. are highly soluble in water
D. inherited in an autosomal recessive fashion
Answer : C