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Refrigeration & Air-Conditioning 1000+ MCQ with answer for FCI Recruitment

Thursday 9th of March 2023

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1. The freezing point of R-12 is
A. -86.6°C
B. -95.2°C
C. -107.7°C
D. -135.8°C
Answer : D
2. The superheating in a refrigeration cycle
A. Does not alter C.O.P.
B. Increases C.O.P.
C. Decreases C.O.P.
D. None of these
Answer : C
3. During sensible cooling of air, specific humidity
A. Remains constant
B. Increases
C. Decreases
D. None of these
Answer : A
4. Short horizontal lines on pressure-enthalpy chart show
A. Constant pressure lines
B. Constant temperature lines
C. Constant total heat lines
D. Constant entropy lines
Answer : A
5. Chaperon equation is applicable for registration at
A. Saturation point of vapour
B. Saturation point of liquid
C. Sublimation temperature
D. Triple point
Answer : A
6. A Bell Coleman refrigerator working on dense air system as compared to open air system, for the same range of temperature, results in ________ power per tonne of refrigeration.
A. Same
B. Lower
C. Higher
D. None of these
Answer : B
7. The boiling point of carbon dioxide is
A. -20.5°C
B. -50°C
C. -63.3°C
D. -78.3°C
Answer : D
8. In vapour compression refrigeration system, refrigerant occurs as liquid between
A. Condenser and expansion valve
B. Compressor and evaporator
C. Expansion valve and evaporator
D. Compressor and condenser
Answer : C
9. The refrigerant widely used in domestic refrigerators is
A. Ammonia
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Sulphur dioxide
D. R-12
Answer : D
10. One ton of the refrigeration is
A. The standard unit used in refrigeration problems
B. The cooling effect produced by melting 1 ton of ice
C. The refrigeration effect to freeze 1 ton of water at 0°C into ice at 0°C in 24 hours
D. The refrigeration effect to produce 1 ton of ice at NTP conditions
Answer : C
11. Efficiency of a Carnot engine is given as 80%. If the cycle direction be reversed, what will be the value of COP of reversed Carnot Cycle?
A. 1.25
B. 0.8
C. 0.5
D. 0.25
Answer : D
12. The humidity ratio or specific humidity is the mass of water vapour present in
A. 1 m3 of wet air
B. 1 m3 of dry air
C. 1 kg of wet air
D. 1 kg of dry air
Answer : D
13. In Electrolux refrigerator
A. Ammonia is absorbed in hydrogen
B. Ammonia is absorbed in water
C. Ammonia evaporates in hydrogen
D. Hydrogen evaporates in ammonia
Answer : C
14. The sensible heat factor during cooling and dehumidification process is given by (where h? = Enthalpy of air entering the cooling coil, h? = Enthalpy of air leaving the cooling coil, and hA = Enthalpy of air at the end of dehumidification process)
A. (hA - h2)/ (h1 - h2)
B. (h2 - hA)/ (h1 - h2)
C. (h1 - h2)/ (hA - h2)
D. (hA - h1)/ (h2 - h1)
Answer : A
15. During humidification process, __________ increases.
A. Wet bulb temperature
B. Relative humidity
C. Dry bulb temperature
D. Specific humidity
Answer : B
16. The general rule for rating refrigeration systems (excepting for CO? system) is to approximate following h.p. per ton of refrigeration
A. 0.1 to 0.5 h.p. per ton of refrigeration
B. 0.5 to 0.8 h.p. per ton of refrigeration
C. 1 to 2 h.p. per ton of refrigeration
D. 2 to 5 h.p. per ton of refrigeration
Answer : C
17. The process of under-cooling is generally brought about by
A. Circulating more quantity of cooling water through the condenser
B. Using water colder than the main circulating water
C. Employing a heat exchanger
D. Any one of the above
Answer : D
18. Which of the following cycles uses air as the refrigerant?
A. Ericson
B. Stirling
C. Carnot
D. Bell Coleman
Answer : D
19. Where does the lowest temperature occur in a vapour compression cycle?
A. Condenser
B. Evaporator
C. Compressor
D. Expansion valve
Answer : B
20. The condition of refrigerant after passing through the expansion or throttle valve, in a vapour compression system is
A. High pressure saturated liquid
B. Wet vapour
C. Very wet vapour
D. Dry vapour
Answer : C
21. The specific humidity during humidification process
A. Remains constant
B. Increases
C. Decreases
D. None of these
Answer : B
22. The coefficient of performance of Electrolux refrigerator is the ratio of
A. Heat supplied by the gas burner to the heat absorbed by the evaporator
B. Heat absorbed by the evaporator to the heat supplied by the gas burner
C. Heat supplied by the gas burner minus the heat absorbed by the evaporator to the heat supplied by the gas burner
D. Heat absorbed by the evaporator minus the heat supplied by the gas burner to the heat absorbed by the evaporator
Answer : B
23. Ammonia absorption refrigeration cycle requires
A. Very little work input
B. Maximum work input
C. Nearly same work input as for vapour compression cycle
D. Zero work input
Answer : A
24. The power per tonne of refrigeration is
A. 3.5/C.O.P.
B. C.O.P/3.5
C. 3.5 × C.O.P.
D. None of these
Answer : A
25. The dehumidification process, on the psychrometric chart, is shown by
A. Horizontal line
B. Vertical line
C. Inclined line
D. Curved line
Answer : B
26. Air refrigeration cycle is used in
A. Commercial refrigerators
B. Domestic refrigerators
C. Air-conditioning
D. Gas liquefaction
Answer : D
27. In which of the following refrigeration system, waste heat can be effectively used?
A. Vapour compression cycle
B. Vapour absorption cycle
C. Air refrigeration cycle
D. None of these
Answer : B
28. The atmospheric air at dry bulb temperature of 15°C enters a heating coil maintained at 40°C. The air leaves the heating coil at 25°C. The bypass factor of the heating coil is
A. 0.376
B. 0.4
C. 0.6
D. 0.67
Answer : C
29. The relative humidity is defined as
A. The mass of water vapour present in 1 m3 of dry air
B. The mass of water vapour present in 1 kg of dry air
C. The ratio of the actual mass of water vapour in a unit mass of dry air to the mass of water vapour in the same mass of dry air when it is saturated at the same temperature and pressure.
D. The ratio of actual mass of water vapour in a given volume of moist air to the mass of water vapour in the same volume of saturated air at the same temperature and pressure
Answer : D
30. The lowest temperature during the cycle in a vapour compression system occurs after
A. Compression
B. Expansion
C. Condensation
D. Evaporation
Answer : D
31. The bypass factor of a cooling coil decreases with
A. Decrease in fin spacing and increase in number of rows
B. Increase in fin spacing and increase in number of rows
C. Increase in fin spacing and decrease in number of rows
D. Decrease in fin spacing and decrease in number of rows
Answer : A
32. On the pressure-enthalpy diagram, condensation and desuperheating is represented by a horizontal line because the process
A. Involves no change in volume
B. Takes place at constant temperature
C. Takes place at constant entropy
D. Takes place at constant pressure
Answer : D
33. Reducing suction pressure in refrigeration cycle
A. Lowers evaporation temperature
B. Increases power required per ton of refrigeration
C. Lowers compressor capacity because vapour is lighter
D. All of the above
Answer : D
34. A standard ice point temperature corresponds to the temperature of
A. Water at 0°C
B. Ice at 4°C
C. Solid and dry ice
D. Mixture of ice and water under equilibrium conditions
Answer : D
35. Which of the following refrigerant has the maximum ozone depletion potential in the stratosphere?
A. Ammonia
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Sulphur dioxide
D. Fluorine
Answer : D
36. Condensing temperature in a refrigerator is the temperature
A. Of cooling medium
B. Of freezing zone
C. Of evaporator
D. At which refrigerant gas becomes liquid
Answer : D
37. The wet bulb temperature at 100% relative humidity is ________ dry bulb temperature.
A. Same as
B. Lower than
C. Higher than
D. None of these
Answer : A
38. When the lower temperature of a refrigerating machine is fixed, then the coefficient of performance can be improved by
A. Operating the machine at higher speeds
B. Operating the machine at lower speeds
C. Raising the higher temperature
D. Lowering the higher temperature
Answer : D
39. During sensible cooling,
A. Relative humidity remains constant
B. Wet bulb temperature increases
C. Specific humidity increases
D. Partial pressure of vapour remains constant
Answer : D
40. The superheated vapour region, in a pressure enthalpy chart, is represented by the space
A. To the left of saturated liquid line
B. To the right of saturated liquid line
C. Between the saturated liquid line and saturated vapour line
D. None of the above
Answer : C
41. The pressure at the outlet of a refrigerant compressor is called
A. Suction pressure
B. Discharge pressure
C. Critical pressure
D. Back pressure
Answer : B
42. A vapour absorption refrigeration system
A. Gives noisy operation
B. Gives quiet operation
C. Requires little power consumption
D. Cools below 0°C
Answer : B
43. During a refrigeration cycle, heat is rejected by the refrigerant in a
A. Compressor
B. Condenser
C. Evaporator
D. Expansion valve
Answer : B
44. In mechanical refrigeration system, the refrigerant has the maximum temperature
A. In evaporator
B. Before expansion valve
C. Between compressor and condenser
D. Between condenser and evaporator
Answer : C
45. Chaperon equation is a relation between
A. Temperature, pressure and enthalpy
B. Specific volume and enthalpy
C. Temperature and enthalpy
D. Temperature, pressure, specific volume and enthalpy
Answer : D
46. A bootstrap air cooling system has
A. One heat exchanger
B. Two heat exchangers
C. Three heat exchangers
D. Four heat exchangers
Answer : B
47. In a psychrometric chart, specific humidity (moisture content) lines are
A. Vertical and uniformly spaced
B. Horizontal and uniformly spaced
C. Horizontal and non-uniformly spaced
D. Curved lines
Answer : B
48. In chemical dehumidification process,
A. Dew point temperature decreases
B. Wet bulb temperature decreases
C. Dry bulb temperature increases
D. All of these
Answer : D
49. Freon group of refrigerants are
A. Inflammable
B. Toxic
C. Non-inflammable and toxic
D. Nontoxic and non-inflammable
Answer : D
50. The C.O.P. of an absorption type refrigerator is given by (where T? = Temperature at which the working substance receives heat, T? = Temperature of cooling water, and T? = Evaporator temperature)
A. [T? (T? - T?)] / [T? (T? - T?)]
B. [T? (T? - T?)]/ [T? (T? - T?)]
C. [T? (T? - T?)] / [T? (T? - T?)]
D. [T? (T? - T?)] / [T? (T? - T?)]
Answer : B

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