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Refrigeration & Air-Conditioning 1000+ MCQ with answer for SSC CGL

Thursday 9th of March 2023

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1. The boiling point of ammonia is
A. 100°C
B. 50°C
C. 33.3°C
D. 0°C
Answer : C
2. A standard ice point temperature corresponds to the temperature of
A. Water at 0°C
B. Ice at 4°C
C. Solid and dry ice
D. Mixture of ice and water under equilibrium conditions
Answer : D
3. Which of the following statement is correct for ammonia as a refrigerant?
A. It is toxic to mucous membranes.
B. It requires large displacement per TR compared to fluoro carbons.
C. It reacts with copper and its alloys.
D. All of these
Answer : D
4. The lowest thermal diffusivity is of
A. Iron
B. Lead
C. Aluminium
D. Rubber
Answer : D
5. The wet bulb temperature at 100% relative humidity is ________ dry bulb temperature.
A. Same as
B. Lower than
C. Higher than
D. None of these
Answer : A
6. The undesirable property of a refrigerant is
A. Non-toxic
B. Non-flammable
C. Non-explosive
D. High boiling point
Answer : D
7. Formation of frost on evaporator in refrigerator
A. Results in loss of heat due to poor heat transfer
B. Increases heat transfer rate
C. Is immaterial
D. Can be avoided by proper design
Answer : A
8. Carbon dioxide is
A. Colourless
B. Odourless
C. Non-flammable
D. All of these
Answer : D
9. In which of the following refrigeration system, waste heat can be effectively used?
A. Vapour compression cycle
B. Vapour absorption cycle
C. Air refrigeration cycle
D. None of these
Answer : B
10. At lower temperatures and pressures, the latent heat of vaporisation of a refrigerant
A. Decreases
B. Increases
C. Remain same
D. Depends on other factors
Answer : B
11. The coefficient of performance of Electrolux refrigerator is the ratio of
A. Heat supplied by the gas burner to the heat absorbed by the evaporator
B. Heat absorbed by the evaporator to the heat supplied by the gas burner
C. Heat supplied by the gas burner minus the heat absorbed by the evaporator to the heat supplied by the gas burner
D. Heat absorbed by the evaporator minus the heat supplied by the gas burner to the heat absorbed by the evaporator
Answer : B
12. Efficiency of a Carnot engine is given as 80%. If the cycle direction be reversed, what will be the value of COP of reversed Carnot Cycle?
A. 1.25
B. 0.8
C. 0.5
D. 0.25
Answer : D
13. In a vapour compression system, the condition of refrigerant before entering the expansion or throttle valve is
A. High pressure saturated liquid
B. Wet vapour
C. Very wet vapour
D. Dry vapour
Answer : A
14. Which of the following refrigerant has the maximum ozone depletion potential in the stratosphere?
A. Ammonia
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Sulphur dioxide
D. Fluorine
Answer : D
15. During sensible cooling of air, specific humidity
A. Remains constant
B. Increases
C. Decreases
D. None of these
Answer : A
16. The relative coefficient of performance is equal to
A. (Theoretical C.O.P.)/ (Actual C.O.P.)
B. (Actual C.O.P.) /(Theoretical C.O.P.)
C. (Actual C.O.P.) × (Theoretical C.O.P.)
D. None of these
Answer : B
17. A bootstrap air cooling system has
A. One heat exchanger
B. Two heat exchangers
C. Three heat exchangers
D. Four heat exchangers
Answer : B
18. Air conditioning means
A. Cooling
B. Heating
C. Dehumidifying
D. All of these
Answer : D
19. In chemical dehumidification process,
A. Dew point temperature decreases
B. Wet bulb temperature decreases
C. Dry bulb temperature increases
D. All of these
Answer : D
20. The higher temperature in vapour compression cycle occurs at
A. Receiver
B. Expansion valve
C. Evaporator
D. Compressor discharge
Answer : D
21. The air cooling system mostly used in transport type aircrafts is
A. Simple air cooling system
B. Simple evaporative air cooling system
C. Bootstrap air cooling system
D. All of these
Answer : C
22. The boiling point of carbon dioxide is
A. -20.5°C
B. -50°C
C. -63.3°C
D. -78.3°C
Answer : D
23. One of the purposes of sub cooling the liquid refrigerant is to
A. Reduce compressor overheating
B. Reduce compressor discharge temperature
C. Increase cooling effect
D. Ensure that only liquid and not the vapour enters the expansion (throttling) valve
Answer : D
24. The capillary tube, as an expansion device, is used in
A. Domestic refrigerators
B. Water coolers
C. Room air conditioners
D. All of these
Answer : D
25. The C.O.P. of a heat pump working on a reversed Carnot cycle is
A. T?/(T? - T?)
B. (T? - T?)/T?
C. (T? - T?)/T?
D. T?/(T? - T?)
Answer : D
26. The wet bulb temperature during sensible cooling of air
A. Remains constant
B. Increases
C. Decreases
D. None of these
Answer : C
27. The thermostatic expansion valve operates on the changes in the
A. Degree of superheat at exit from the evaporator
B. Temperature of the evaporator
C. Pressure in the evaporator
D. None of the above
Answer : A
28. R-12 is generally preferred over R-22 in deep freezers since
A. It has low operating pressures
B. It gives higher coefficient of performance
C. It is miscible with oil over large range of temperatures
D. All of the above
Answer : C
29. The COP of a vapour compression plant in comparison to vapour absorption plant is
A. More
B. Less
C. Same
D. More/less depending on size of plant
Answer : A
30. One tonne of refrigeration (1TR) means that the heat removing capacity is
A. 21 kJ/min
B. 210 kJ/min
C. 420 kJ/min
D. 620 kJ/min
Answer : B
31. If a gas is to be liquefied, its temperature must be
A. Increased to a value above its critical temperature
B. Reduced to a value below its critical temperature
C. Equal to critical temperature
D. None of the above
Answer : C
32. In a refrigeration cycle, the flow of refrigerant is controlled by
A. Compressor
B. Condenser
C. Evaporator
D. Expansion valve
Answer : D
33. Highest pressure encountered in a refrigeration system should be
A. Critical pressure of refrigerant
B. Much below critical pressure
C. Much above critical pressure
D. Near critical pressure
Answer : B
34. Relative humidity is given by (where pv = Partial pressure of water vapour, pb = Barometric pressure, ps = Pressure of saturated air, pd = Pressure at dry bulb temperature, pw = Saturation pressure corresponding to wet bulb temperature, and ? = Degree of saturation)
A. 0.622 Pv / (Pb - Pv)
B. ?/[1 - (1 - ?) (Ps/Pb)]
C. [Pv (Pb - Pd)]/ [Pd (Pb - Pv)]
D. None of these
Answer : B
35. Air refrigeration operates on
A. Carnot cycle
B. Reversed Carnot cycle
C. Rankines cycle
D. Brayton cycle
Answer : D
36. Nusselt number (NN) is given by
A. NN = hl/k
B. NN = ? cp/k
C. NN = ? V l /?
D. NN = V²/t.cp
Answer : A
37. As relative humidity decreases, the dew point temperature will be ________ wet bulb temperature.
A. Same as
B. Lower than
C. Higher than
D. None of these
Answer : B
38. A certain refrigerating system has a normal operating suction pressure of 10 kg/cm gauge and condensing pressure of about 67 kg/cm. The refrigerant used is
A. Ammonia
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Freon
D. Brine
Answer : B
39. A thermostatic expansion valve in a refrigeration system
A. Ensures the evaporator completely filled with refrigerant of the load
B. Is suitable only for constant load systems
C. Maintains different temperatures in evaporator in proportion to load
D. None of the above
Answer : A
40. The Freon group of refrigerants are
A. Halocarbon refrigerants
B. Zoetrope refrigerants
C. Inorganic refrigerants
D. Hydrocarbon refrigerants
Answer : A
41. In a saturated air-water vapour mixture, the
A. Dry bulb temperature is higher than wet bulb temperature
B. Dew point temperature is lower than wet bulb temperature
C. Dry bulb, wet bulb and dew point temperature are same
D. Dry bulb temperature is higher than dew point temperature
Answer : C
42. The vertical and uniformly spaced lines on a psychrometric chart indicates
A. Dry bulb temperature
B. Wet bulb temperature
C. Dew point temperature
D. Specific humidity
Answer : A
43. During humidification process, __________ increases.
A. Wet bulb temperature
B. Relative humidity
C. Dry bulb temperature
D. Specific humidity
Answer : B
44. One ton of the refrigeration is
A. The standard unit used in refrigeration problems
B. The cooling effect produced by melting 1 ton of ice
C. The refrigeration effect to freeze 1 ton of water at 0°C into ice at 0°C in 24 hours
D. The refrigeration effect to produce 1ton of ice at NTP conditions
Answer : C
45. Degree of saturation or percentage humidity is
A. The mass of water vapour present in 1 m³ of dry air
B. The mass of water vapour present in 1 kg of dry air
C. The ratio of the actual mass of water vapour in a unit mass of dry air to the mass of water vapour in the same mass of dry air when it is saturated at the same temperature and pressure.
D. The ratio of actual mass of water vapour in a given volume of moist air to the mass of water vapour in the same volume of saturated air at the same temperature and pressure
Answer : C
46. The difference between dry bulb temperature and wet bulb temperature, is called
A. Dry bulb depression
B. Wet bulb depression
C. Dew point depression
D. Degree of saturation
Answer : B
47. Moisture should be removed from refrigerants to avoid
A. Freezing at the expansion valve
B. Restriction to refrigerant flow
C. Corrosion of steel plates
D. All of these
Answer : D
48. The suction pipe diameter of refrigerating unit compressor in comparison to delivery side is
A. Bigger
B. Smaller
C. Equal
D. Smaller/bigger depending on capacity
Answer : A
49. In vapour compression cycle, the condition of refrigerant is saturated liquid
A. After passing through the condenser
B. Before passing through the condenser
C. After passing through the expansion throttle valve
D. Before entering the expansion valve
Answer : A
50. In a vapour absorption refrigeration system, the compressor of the vapour compression system is replaced by
A. Liquid pump
B. Generator
C. Absorber and generator
D. Absorber, generator and liquid pump
Answer : D

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