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Senile enlargement of the prostate MCQ Solved Paper for GRE

Thursday 9th of March 2023

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Downlaod Senile enlargement of the prostate MCQ PDF
1. a. urethral stricture
A. bladder stones
B. BPH
C. prostatitis syndrome
D. . What is (are) the indication(s) of antimuscarinic agents and PDEIs
Answer : D
2. IPSS decreases after successful TURP because:
A. PSA decreases
B. the prostate size decreases
C. the complaints resolve
D. the Q.O.L improves
Answer : C
3. What is false concerning the diagnosis of BPH?
A. IPSS cannot be used to establish the diagnosis of BPH/LUTS
B. prostate biopsy is essential in diagnosing BPH and excluding cancers
C. PSA and uroflowmetry help diagnose the condition
D. none of the above
Answer : A
4. What is true regarding mirabegron, the ?3 agonist, in treating BPH?
A. achieves better results when combined with antimuscarinic
B. enhances detrusor contractility resulting in higher Q-max
C. enhance detrusor relaxation during bladder-filling phase
D. increases voiding pressure that poses risk on renal function
Answer : C
5. A BPH patient presents with retention of urine. He is Catheterized. Later, he underwent TURP. When would the highest PSA value be?
A. before catheterization
B. after catheterization and before TURP
C. immediately after TURP
D. 2 weeks after TURP
Answer : C
6. What prostatic lobe(s) can be assessed during DRE?
A. anterior
B. median
C. left lateral
D. all of the above
Answer : C
7. An ED patient on low-dose tadalafil develops BPH. What medication should he avoid?
A. tamsulosin
B. alfuzosin
C. doxazosin
D. silodosin
Answer : C
8. What is false concerning BPH and androgenic hormones?
A. the most potent androgenic hormones in BPH development is DHT
B. type-2 steroid 5 ?-reductase, is most commonly found in the prostate
C. castrated individuals before puberty will not develop BPH
D. as a man ages, the number of androgen receptors in the prostate decreases
Answer : D
9. The lowest re-treatment rate of BPH is for:
A. TUIP
B. TURP
C. HoLEP
D. HoLRP
Answer : A
10. a. small fibrous glands
A. the presence of prostate cancer
B. previous prostatectomy
C. all of the above
D. . Robot-assisted laparoscopic prostatectomy for prostatic adenoma has the following advantage over TURP:
Answer : C
11. Which of the following is NOT classified as a complicated LUTS?
A. LUTS with neurologic disease
B. LUTS with post-void dribble
C. LUTS with suspicious DRE
D. LUTS with hematuria
Answer : D
12. In BPH, the etiology of acute urinary retention includes:
A. prostatic infarction
B. prostate infection
C. bladder overdistention
D. all of the above
Answer : A
13. How to manage priapism that occurs during endoscopic surgery?
A. corporal aspiration
B. corpora injection with an ?-adrenergic agent
C. corpora injection with an ?-adrenergic blocker
D. no treatment required
Answer : B
14. Which statement is false regarding TURP syndrome?
A. occurs because of absorption of non-sodium-containing irrigating fluid
B. occurs only on using unipolar TURP
C. results in brain edema due to dilutional hyponatremia
D. positioning the patient in anti-Trendelenburg helps prevent the syndrome
Answer : D
15. A 55 yrs. male patient with familial BPH, IPSS 9, PSA 23ng/ml, prostate size 31 cc, PVR 54 cc, on watchful waiting management. Next step should be:
A. tamsulosin 0.8 mg
B. reassurance
C. repeat total and free PSA
D. diagnostic cystoscopy
Answer : C
16. as adjuncts therapy in BPH cases?
A. men with storage symptoms
B. men with ED
C. failed combination of ?-adrenergic blocker and 5?-reductase inhibitor
D. a & b
Answer : D
17. What is true regarding BPH and androgens?
A. as a man ages, the responsiveness of prostate cells to androgenic stimuli decreases
B. adrenal androgens have no role in BPH development
C. type-1 steroid 5 ?-reductase is functionally active in the hair follicle
D. all of the above
Answer : C
18. PSA value has a strong correlation with:
A. IPSS
B. post void residual
C. prostate volume
D. Q-max at uroflowmetry
Answer : C
19. In BPH patients, follow up PSA is of value because:
A. it helps predict the response to 5?-reductase inhibitors
B. it monitors LUTS/BPH progression
C. BPH patients are at higher risk of developing prostate cancer
D. a & b
Answer : D
20. On measuring the prostate volume during endoscopy:
A. each centimeter over the normal 2-cm prostate urethral length equates
B. an additional 12 g in prostate weight
C. each centimeter over the normal 2.5-cm prostate urethral length equates
D. an additional 10 g in prostate weight
Answer : B
21. a. operation cost
A. smaller incisions with a shorter hospital stay
B. lower risk for blood transfusion
C. none of the above
D. . What is the first-line management of uncomplicated LUTS due to large prostate?
Answer : B
22. Which statement(s) describe(s) the bladders response to an obstructing prostate?
A. it may develop detrusor instability with irritative LUTS
B. it may develop poor compliance with frequency and urgency symptoms
C. it may develop poor detrusor contractility with obstructive LUTS
D. all of the above
Answer : D
23. Complications related to obstructive BPH/LUTS include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. bladder stones
B. prostate cancer
C. renal insufficiency
D. bladder diverticula
Answer : B
24. What drug prevents recurrent gross hematuria secondary to BPH?
A. enoxaparin
B. silodosin
C. finasteride
D. tolterodine
Answer : C
25. What can NOT be assessed during DRE?
A. sacral cord integrity
B. pelvic hematoma
C. pelvic floor muscle tenderness
D. prostatic median lobe hypertrophy
Answer : D
26. TURP carries an incidence of retrograde ejaculation of:
A. 62 - 78%
B. 48 - 61%
C. 79 - 93%
D. 34 - 47%
Answer : C
27. A 50% reduction of prostate size is expected after a 6-month therapy with:
A. alfuzosin
B. silodosin
C. finasteride
D. tamsulosin
Answer : C
28. What is false concerning IPSS questionnaire?
A. is specific for prostate symptom
B. is a seven-question, self-administered questionnaire that yields a total score that ranges from 0 to 35
C. a sum of 20 on IPSS scale is severe
D. it covers both voiding and storage symptomatology
Answer : A
29. To achieve better hemostasis in prostate laser surgery, what is the ideal wavelength that is easily absorbed by hemoglobin?
A. 532 nm
B. 694 nm
C. 755 nm
D. 1064 nm
Answer : A
30. What is (are) the possible complication(s) of prostate stents?
A. hematuria and infections
B. migration and encrustation of the stent
C. irritative urinary symptoms and painful ejaculation
D. all of the above
Answer : D
31. Anticholinergic medications work best with BPH patients who have:
A. small prostate
B. mainly median lobe hypertrophy
C. history of urinary retention
D. mainly irritative symptoms
Answer : D
32. What is false regarding BPH symptomatology?
A. the size of the prostate correlates well to the degree of obstruction
B. a decrease of 3 points in IPSS is associated with a subjective perception of improvement
C. median lobe enlargement gives rise to serious obstructive symptoms
D. bladder trabeculation is not specific for an obstructing prostate
Answer : A
33. c. each centimeter over the normal 2.5-cm prostate urethral length equates
A. an additional 15 g in prostate weight
B. each centimeter over the normal 1.5-cm prostate urethral length equates
C. an additional 5 g in prostate weight
D. . When comparing suprapubic to retropubic prostatectomy for removing prostatic adenoma, the former allows:
Answer : A
34. What is (are) the indication(s) of upper urinary tract imaging in men with LUTS?
A. hematuria
B. recurrent urinary tract infection
C. renal insufficiency
D. all of the above
Answer : D
35. Which statement is false regarding laser enucleation of the Prostate (HoLEP)?
A. provides tissue preservation for pathological examination
B. treats any size of prostatic adenoma
C. follows anatomic planes to remove the prostate in lobes
D. urinary incontinence is a significant drawback after HoLEP
Answer : D
36. What is the capsular perforation rate in prostate vaporization surgery?
A. 0.2 1%
B. 1.2 2.1%
C. 2.3 3.4%
D. 3.7 5.6%
Answer : D
37. In BPH patients, which of the following measures reduces PSA value by one-half?
A. 2 weeks after performing prostatic urethral lift
B. 6-month treatment with 5?-reductase inhibitors
C. after placing a stent in the prostatic urethra
D. immediately after removing one-half of the prostate by TURP
Answer : B
38. Which statement is false concerning transurethral microwave therapy (TUMT) for BPH treatment:
A. induces nerve degeneration in the prostate and tissue necrosis
B. frequently results in transient urinary retention
C. frequently leads to erectile dysfunction
D. the high-energy platform is superior to the low-energy with regard to clinical efficacy
Answer : C
39. Preferably, what is the last part of the prostate to be removed while performing TURP?
A. bladder neck
B. apex
C. median lobe
D. para-collecular
Answer : B
40. BPH/LUTS patients when present with mild creatinine elevation, are advised to do:
A. total and free PSA
B. renal ultrasonography
C. creatinine clearance
D. uroflowmetry
Answer : B
div class="panel-body">41. In men with obstructive BPH, what will NOT resolve after TURP?
A. bladder trabeculation
B. significant PVR
C. low peak flow rate
D. high IPSS
Answer : A
42. Transurethral incision of the prostate (TUIP):
A. is only indicated in small prostates
B. complications are related to the amount of lost blood and removed chips
C. is a minimal procedure where no risk of rectal injury or retrograde ejaculation have been reported
D. it entails making 1 or 2 incisions along all prostate lobes except the apical
Answer : A
43. Which drug reduces the incidence of prostate cancer by 23% with a small increase in high-grade tumor incidence?
A. cetrorelix
B. flutamide
C. dutasteride
D. zanoterone
Answer : B
44. a. no risk of dilutional hyponatremia
A. operating on patients with multiple bladder diverticula
B. operating on patients who cannot flex their hips and/or knees
C. unfavorable tissue preservation for pathological examination
D. . What is (are) the contraindication(s) to open prostatectomy for prostatic adenoma?
Answer : D
45. What is (are) the indication(s) to prescribe ?-adrenergic inhibitors for BPH patients?
A. peak flow rate of ? 12 mL/sec
B. prostate volume > 40 ml
C. PSA > 1.5 ng/dL
D. b & c
Answer : A
46. When comparing HoLEP to open prostatectomy for a 70 g prostatic adenoma removal; what parameter goes in favor of the latter?
A. operation time
B. duration of in-hospital stay
C. amount of blood transfused
D. time to catheter removal
Answer : A
47. The most serious drawback of anticholinergic drugs on BPH patients is:
A. renal insufficiency
B. urinary retention
C. dry mouth
D. painless hematuria
Answer : B
48. Prostatic nodules palpated on DRE might indicate:
A. tuberculous prostatitis
B. prostatic cancer
C. inspissated prostatic abscess
D. any of the above
Answer : D
49. What is false regarding prostate embolization for BPH?
A. the aim is to occlude the internal iliac vessels
B. there is a considerable radiation risk during the procedure
C. bilateral embolization provides better results
D. eye protection is not required
Answer : A
50. What is true regarding the use of ?-blockers and the development of Intraoperative Floppy Iris Syndrome (IFIS)?
A. complicates approximately 0.7% of cataract surgery cases
B. manifests as poor preoperative pupil dilation, iris prolapse, and progressive intraoperative miosis
C. it could persist long after the discontinuation of tamsulosin
D. intraoperative lidocaine reduces its incidence in patients taking ?- adrenergic inhibitors
Answer : C
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