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SSC CGL - Urologic infections and inflammations 1000+ MCQ [Solved] PDF Download

Thursday 9th of March 2023

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1. Which of the following does NOT cause unresolved bacteriuria?
A. giant staghorn stone
B. perivesical abscess with fistula to the bladder
C. bacterial resistance
D. self-inflicted infection
Answer : B
2. Which of the following factors increases the risk of UTI due to facilitation of microbial ascent?
A. sexual activity
B. the use of spermicide
C. estrogen depletion
D. fecal incontinence
Answer : D
3. What is false concerning emphysematous cystitis?
A. the hallmark in the diagnosis is the cystoscopic findings
B. risk factors include transplant recipients
C. CT shows intramural and/or intraluminal gas in the bladder
D. requires surgical debridement and probably cystectomy
Answer : A
4. What is true regarding contrast CT imaging for a renal abscess?
A. abscess appears as a low attenuation cystic cavity containing gas
B. renal parenchyma around the abscess cavity may show hypo enhancement in nephrogram phase
C. associated fascial and septal thickening are seen with obliteration of perinephric fat
D. all of the above
Answer : D
5. What is true regarding balanoposthitis?
A. is best diagnosed by ascending urethrography
B. occurs mostly in diabetic and immunosuppressed patients
C. could be due to maceration injury, irritant dermatitis, or Candida
D. commonly presents with deep inguinal lymphadenopathy
Answer : C
6. Which treatment modality has NO proven efficacy in CP/CPPS?
A. selective nerve block
B. balloon dilation
C. botulinum A toxin injection
D. ESWL
Answer : B
7. What is the percentage of occurrence of Staphylococcus saprophyticus in symptomatic lower UTIs in young sexually active females?
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 15%
D. 20%
Answer : B
8. What is true regarding acute pyelonephritis?
A. a cause of obstruction should be sought
B. PCN is placed to decompress the kidney and preserve renal function
C. blood-born staphylococci are commoner than ascending E.coli infections
D. blood and urine cultures must dictate the antibiotic choice from day 1
Answer : A
9. The virulence of uropathogenic E.coli depends on all the following,
EXCEPT:

A. P blood-group antigen
B. P fimbriae in descending infections
C. emolysins
D. Dr family of adhesins in ascending infections
Answer : B
10. In males, HIV infection increases the incidence of the following genitourinary tumors:
A. testicular
B. renal
C. penile
D. all of the above
Answer : D
11. What is true regarding chronic epididymitis symptomatology?
A. pain is dull aching in the scrotum, perineum, inner thighs, and lower abdomen
B. dysuria, frequency, and/or urgency
C. long-standing (> 6 weeks) history of scrotal pain, and tenderness
D. low grade fever, malaise, and urethral discharge
Answer : C
12. What is (are) the prominent clinical finding(s) in the diagnosis of acute pyelonephritis?
A. fever, chills, abdominal pain
B. costovertibral angle tenderness
C. hypogastric and loin pain
D. flank pain, dysuria
Answer : B
13. What is false concerning the management of genitourinary TB?
A. prostatic TB is better drained per rectum before initiating the medications
B. renal TB may require nephroureterectomy
C. peripheral neuritis is a known side effect of isoniazid
D. moxifloxacin might result in tendon rupture
Answer : A
14. What is false concerning corpora amylacea of the prostate?
A. are premalignant, and found in 1-6% of prostate biopsies
B. are small hyaline masses of unknown significance found in the prostate gland
C. they are degenerate cells or thickened secretions in the prostate ducts
D. might appear as prostate calcifications on X-ray KUB
Answer : A
15. No need for radiologic studies for recurrent UTI in:
A. children
B. the elderly
C. men
D. women
Answer : D
16. What is false regarding Herpes simplex (HSV) infection?
A. characterized by neurovirulence
B. the incubation period of primary genital herpes is 2 3 weeks
C. HSV can be isolated in the urine
D. HSV-1 infection causes urethritis more often than HSV-2 does
Answer : B
17. What is false regarding schistosomal cystitis?
A. an esinophilic immune reaction is generated in response to the eggs
B. chronic schistosomiasis can eventually result in small bladder and the development of cancers
C. schistosoma mansoni often causes urinary tract infections
D. could cause inflammatory polys and recurrent hematuria
Answer : C
18. What is the ideal antibiotic class for self-start therapy on treating recurrent cystitis in a 32 yrs. married woman?
A. aminopenicillins
B. fluoroquinolones
C. aminoglycosides
D. nitrofurantoins
Answer : B
19. What is false regarding Fournier`s gangrene?
A. is defined as a polymicrobial chronic infection of the perineal, perianal, or genital areas
B. as the disease progresses, branches from the inferior epigastric, deep circumflex iliac, and external pudendal arteries get thrombosed
C. presents as a dark skinned-scrotum, subcutaneous crepitation, and foul smell
D. surgical debridement often spares the testes
Answer : A
20. UPOINT system for phenotype categorization:
A. categorizes CP-CPPS, IC, and painful bladder syndrome based on 5 etiological principles
B. meant to classify CP-CPPS and IC patients into 6 domains
C. helps establish a reliable diagnosis of CP/CPPS or IC
D. the diagnostic scores of UPOINT depend on cystoscopy, TRUS, urine analysis and culture of uncommon microbes
Answer : B
21. What is true concerning malakoplakia?
A. is a premalignant condition
B. it can be locally aggressive and invades surrounding structures causing bone erosions
C. kidneys are the most commonly affected organs
D. characterized by rounded intracellular inclusions (owls-eyes) in large esinophilic histocytes
Answer : B
22. What is the average age of onset of BPS/IC patients?
A. 30
B. 40
C. 50
D. 60
Answer : B
23. The relative risk of prostate cancer in men with HIV compared to uninfected individuals is:
A. greater than 8 fold
B. greater than 6 fold
C. greater than 4 fold
D. comparable
Answer : D
24. What is true concerning the definition of UTI in women, based on culture results from a suprapubic aspirate of urine?
A. any amount of uropathogen grown in culture indicates UTI
B. for cystitis, more than 1000 CFU/mL indicates UTI
C. for pyelonephritis, more than 10,000 CFU/mL indicates UTI
D. for asymptomatic bacteriuria, more than 100,000 CFU/mL indicates UTI
Answer : A
25. What are the most commonly affected organs by genitourinary schistosomiasis?
A. kidneys and adrenals
B. bladder and ureters
C. prostate and vasa
D. testes and epididymi
Answer : B
26. What is true regarding nephrogenic adenoma of the bladder?
A. results from ectopic nephrogenic blastema cells in the detrusor muscle
B. might undergo malignant transformation in 15 40% of the cases
C. on cystoscopy, it appears as a bladder mucosal irregularity or large intramural mass
D. the preferred treatment is cystectomy and urinary diversion
Answer : C
27. Which of the following is NOT a first-choice antimicrobial agent for uncomplicated acute cystitis in women?
A. nitrofurantoin monohydrate/macrocrystals
B. trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
C. ampicillin
D. fosfomycin
Answer : C
28. Why could pyuria be sterile?
A. because standard laboratory culture specifications might not be favorable for growth of atypical organisms
B. because UTI could show fewer than 10 white cells/mm3 in urine
C. because laboratories may not report significant growth of a defined urinary pathogen
D. all of the above
Answer : D
29. HIV infection increases the incidence of the following cancers, EXCEPT:
A. Kaposi sarcoma,
B. Hodgkin lymphoma
C. non-Hodgkin lymphoma
D. cervical cancer
Answer : B
30. What is false concerning post UTI renal scarring in pediatrics?
A. the incidence of scarring following a single episode of febrile UTI is 4.5%
B. intra-renal reflux is common in convex papillae
C. scarring and chronic pyelonephritis lead to hypertension in 10-20%
D. scarring is best detected and followed up by DMSA
Answer : B
31. Histologically, the pathognomonic finding of Fournier gangrene include:
A. necrosis of the superficial and deep fascial planes
B. fibrinoid thrombosis of the nutrient arterioles
C. polymorphonuclear cell infiltration
D. all of the above
Answer : D
32. What are the sequelae of recurrent uncomplicated UTI in young women?
A. minimal
B. chronic persistent infections
C. chronic relapsing infections
D. bouts of chronic pyelonephritis
Answer : A
33. What is false concerning Xanthogranulomatous Pyelonephritis?
A. is most commonly associated with Proteus or E. coli infection
B. is characterized by lipid-laden foamy macrophages
C. the overall prognosis is poor
D. it might involve adjacent structures or organs
Answer : C
34. What is NOT a poor clinical practice on caring for urethral catheters?
A. taking urine samples by draining the urine bag
B. daily cleansing the external meatus
C. placing the urine bag on the floor
D. changing the urine bag once it is full
Answer : B
35. Under which surgical wound classification, does diagnostic cystoscopy under sterile technique fit?
A. dirty - infected
B. contaminated
C. clean - contaminated
D. clean
Answer : C
36. What is the earliest clinical finding of urosepsis?
A. elevated body temperature
B. dropped blood pressure
C. elevated heart rate
D. reduced urine output
Answer : C
37. What is true concerning bacterial colonization in the bladder?
A. is always asymptomatic
B. it shows a serological immune antibody response
C. is a common cause of sterile pyuria
D. typically, at this stage, the body demonstrates bacteriuria
Answer : A
38. What is true concerning HIV infection?
A. HIV is a retrovirus that infects B-cells and dendritic cells
B. circumcised men are at lower risk for HIV infection
C. HPV infection increases the risk for cancers in HIV patients by 6.3 times
D. plasma HIV RNA load is a predictor of disease remission
Answer : B
39. What is false regarding cystitis cystica?
A. most cysts appear as filling defects on cystography
B. most often found in the trigone area
C. the cyst lumens contain esinophilic secretions that may have a few inflammatory cells
D. cystitis cystica and cystitis glandularis are reactive urothelial changes
Answer : A
40. What is false concerning cystitis glandularis?
A. rarely, the urothelial cell nests show a central lumen lined by glandular epithelium
B. In some cases, it may form polypoid masses that mimic urothelial neoplasms
C. It might appear as multinodular exophytic mass seen on cystoscopy
D. cystitis cystica and cystitis glandularis frequently coexist in the same specimen
Answer : A
41. Which of the following conditions is NOT associated with interstitial cystitis?
A. inflammatory bowel disease
B. rheumatoid arthritis
C. systemic lupus erythematosus
D. fibromyalgia
Answer : B
42. What is the most common serotype of HPV associated with squamous cell carcinoma of the penis?
A. 16
B. 18
C. 22
D. 12
Answer : A
43. What is false concerning the cystoscopic findings of interstitial cystitis?
A. Hunner`s ulcers are multiple ulcerative patches surrounded by mucosal congestion on the dome or lateral walls
B. ulcers might get distorted after overdistention, because discrete areas of mucosal scarring rupture during the procedure
C. in non-ulcerative type, overdistention demonstrates glomerulations on the dome and lateral walls
D. overdistention results in mucosal tears and submucosal hemorrhage
Answer : B
44. What condition does NOT present as an acute loin pain with fever and marked flank tenderness?
A. ascending UTI causing acute lobar nephronia
B. acute pyelonephritis in a transplanted kidney
C. infected renal subcapsular hematoma
D. perinephric abscess causing septicemia
Answer : B
45. When comparing nosocomial to community-acquired UTI, the latter is:
A. 45% are caused by E. coli
B. related to an indwelling urinary catheter in approximately 40% of cases
C. responds fairly to oral antibiotics
D. tends to report higher antibiotic resistance
Answer : C
46. What is true concerning ovarian vein syndrome?
A. manifests as recurrent renal colics due to ureteral obstruction
B. treatment is surgical mobilization of ureter and ligation of the vein
C. commonly, occurs at the left side
D. the pain worsens on sitting upright and during pregnancy
Answer : B
47. What is false concerning Brucellosis epididymitis?
A. commonly presents with scrotal pain, swelling, fever, and leucocytosis
B. epididymo-orchitis is the most frequent genitourinary complication of brucellosis
C. epididymo-orchitis occurs in 10-15% of male patients with brucellosis
D. treatment includes doxycycline and rifampicin for 6-8 weeks
Answer : A
48. What is false concerning acute glomerulonephritis?
A. manifested as a sudden onset of hematuria, proteinuria, oliguria, edema, hypertension, and RBC casts in the urine
B. post-streptococcus GN has an incubation period of 1-3 weeks with specific strains of group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus
C. the triad of sinusitis, pulmonary infiltrates, and nephritis, suggests Wegener granulomatosis
D. C3, C4, ESR and antistreptolysin O titer are increased
Answer : D
49. What is false concerning chronic orchialgia syndrome?
A. it is a constant or intermittent pain of testes for more than 3 months
B. could be due to appendix testis torsion-detorsion
C. could be due to radiculitis resulting from a degenerative lesion in the thoraco-lumber vertebrae
D. could be a result of entrapment neuropathy of ilioinguinal or genitofemoral nerve
Answer : B
50. What type of bladder cells secretes antiproliferative factor?
A. bladder epithelial cells
B. type C nerve endings in the bladder
C. type A delta nerve endings in the bladder
D. the innermost longitudinal fibres of detrusor muscle
Answer : A

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