SSC Stenographer - Urinary Calculus Disease 1000+ MCQ [Solved] PDF Download

1. How can the effectiveness of ESWL treatment session be enhanced?
A. by ensuring optimal coupling of the patient to the lithotripter
B. by running the treatment at a slower rate (60 shocks/min)
C. by running the treatment with general anesthesia
D. by all of the above
Answer : D

2. In what kind of renal stones do antibiotics help most?
A. indinavir
B. magnesium ammonium phosphate
C. xanthine
D. matrix
Answer : B

3. What could carry the least risk of colon injury during PCNL?
A. subcostal puncture performed during full expiration
B. previous open nephrolithotomy
C. access lateral to the posterior axillary line
D. horseshoe kidney
Answer : B

4. What is false regarding hypomagnesuric calcium nephrolithiasis?
A. it is characterized by low urinary magnesium and citrate
B. magnesium increases renal tubular citrate resorption
C. diarrheal is a remarkable side effect of magnesium therapy
D. potassium-magnesium preparations might restore urinary magnesium and citrate levels
Answer : B

5. What is false concerning staghorn calculus?
A. commonly unilateral
B. commonly due to repeated infections
C. urate stones are the second most common cause of staghorn calculi
D. ESWL monotherapy with ureteral stenting is the ideal treatment
Answer : D

6. During pyelolithotomy for removing a staghorn urate stone; how to ensure a complete removal of calyceal branches?
A. by performing intra-operative ultrasonography
B. by performing radial nephrotomies
C. by performing adjunct PCLN
D. by taking a scout KUB film
Answer : A

7. What type of urinary diversion carries the highest risk of stone formation?
A. Kock pouch
B. Neobladder-to-urethra diversion
C. Florida pouch
D. Indiana pouch
Answer : A

8. Ureteral stones of ? 7 mm:
A. should be treated with more analgesics
B. must undergo metabolic worked out
C. are unlikely to pass out spontaneously
D. chemolysis should be tried first
Answer : C

9. What kind of stones is more likely to recur with infections if not removed completely?
A. urate
B. triple phosphate
C. oxalate monohydrate
D. matrix
Answer : B

10. What is false concerning struvite stones?
A. the commonest to form staghorn giant calculi
B. formed by urease producing bacteria
C. antibiotics have a role in the treatment
D. form at the two extremes of urinary pH range
Answer : D

11. What is a remarkable disadvantage of ultrasonic imaging for ESWL?
A. localization of stones in the ureter is difficult or impossible
B. inability to visualize stones breaking down in real time
C. c. patient`s position on ESWL table is uncomfortable
D. d. inability to visualize radiolucent stones
Answer : A

12. What is false concerning primary bladder stones?
A. commonly occur in patients with senile prostatic enlargement
B. common in children exposed to low-protein, low-phosphate diet
C. rarely recur after treatment
D. respond to ESWL
Answer : A

13. What bowel surgery could result in enteric hyperoxaluria?
A. right hemicolectomy
B. small bowel resection
C. Roux-en-Y gastric bypass
D. b & c
Answer : D

14. What is false concerning cystine stones?
A. result from an inherited defect of renal tubular reabsorption of cysteine
B. characteristically, urate and cysteine stone are radiolucent
C. cysteine is a dibasic amino acid
D. on plain X-ray, cysteine stones exhibit ground-glass appearance
Answer : B

15. What is false concerning neonatal nephrolithiasis?
A. frequently caused by loop diuretics
B. stones are often radiolucent
C. may be reversed by the use of thiazides
D. low calcium-to-creatinine ratio predicts stones resolution
Answer : B

16. What is the most important parameter that determines the treatment modality of a kidney stone?
A. stone chemical composition
B. stone burden
C. first stone vs. recurrent
D. stone density
Answer : B

17. How does oral Mg.citrate inhibit Ca.oxalate stone formation?
A. by lowering urinary saturation of Ca.oxalate
B. by preventing heterogeneous nucleation of Ca.oxalate
C. by inhibiting spontaneous precipitation and agglomeration of Ca.oxalate
D. by all of the above
Answer : D

18. What is true regarding DJ ureteral stents?
A. can be placed through perc. nephrostomy
B. might slip out, especially in females
C. usually radiopaque
D. all of the above
Answer : D

19. What is the unfavorable stone characteristic for a rigid URS treatment?
A. size of 5 mm
B. location at the lower calyx
C. density of 400 HU
D. being recurrent
Answer : B

20. What is false concerning primary bladder stones?
A. commoner in females than in males B. in pediatrics, are of calcium oxalate and/or ammonium urate composition
C. caused by bladder outlet obstruction
D. might result in bladder cancer
Answer : A

21. What is the immediate management of ureteral avulsion on retrieving an upper ureteral stone by a basket?
A. placement of a percutaneous nephrostomy drain
B. surgical exploration and primary repair
C. conservative management
D. endoscopic retrograde ureteral stenting
Answer : A

22. What parameter is NOT considered in the stone burden concept?
A. the surface area of the stones
B. the volume of the stones
C. the density of the stones
D. the number of the stones
Answer : C

23. What kind of stones is most amenable to ESWL?
A. cystine
B. brushite
C. Ca.oxalate monohydrate
D. Ca.oxalate dihydrate
Answer : D

24. What is the Hounsfield density range of uric acid stones?
A. 400 600 HU
B. 600 800 HU
C. 800 1000 HU
D. 1000 1200 HU
Answer : A

25. What risk factor(s) promote(s) stone formation?
A. dehydration
B. metabolic disorders
C. congenital anomalies
D. all of the above
Answer : A

26. What is true concerning primary hyperparathyroidism and stone formation?
A. orthophosphates may have a role in the treatment
B. hyperparathyroidectomy and levothyroxine replacement is the optimum treatment
C. management includes Calcium chelating agent and repeat 24hr urine collection in 3 months
D. surgical excision of the adenoma(s) is the treatment of choice
Answer : D

27. Which of the following is a relative contra-indication to ESWL?
A. renal insufficiency
B. active urinary tract infection
C. uncorrected bleeding disorder
D. third trimester pregnancy
Answer : A

28. What is the principal defect in renal hypercalciuria?
A. impaired renal tubular calcium reabsorption
B. excessive glomerular leak of calcium
C. deficiency of the enzyme xanthine oxidase
D. hypercalcemia
Answer : A

29. What is the most common organism that might complicate PCNL?
A. Proteus mirabilis
B. E. coli
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D. Staphylococcus epidermidis
Answer : D

30. What parameter impairs the kidney stone-free rate, after ESWL?
A. short skin-to-stone distance (SSD)
B. end-stage renal failure
C. a stone in the upper calyx
D. the presence of a 30 cm, 4.7 Fr ureteral stent in situ
Answer : B

31. What medications do NOT cause renal stones?
A. ciprofloxacin
B. indinavir
C. thiazides
D. triamterene
Answer : C

32. What is false concerning preputial stones?
A. form due to inspissated smegma
B. form due to stasis of urinary salts
C. cause inguinal lymphadenopathy
D. often associated with phimosis in uncircumcised males
Answer : C

33. What is the incidence risk of ureteral strictures following ureteroscopy?
A. 3 6 %
B. 12 15 %
C. 0.4 0.8 %
D. 0.09 0.14 %
Answer : A

34. Invasive intervention in stone patients is NOT indicated in the following condition:
A. stone size
B. unrelieved obstruction
C. infection and septicemia
D. recurrent stone formation
Answer : D

35. What is the fatality risk if a triple-phosphate staghorn stone left untreated?
A. 0 10%
B. 10 20%
C. 20 30%
D. 30 40%
Answer : C

36. What stone is inherited as an autosomal recessive trait?
A. xanthine
B. ammonium urate
C. cystine
D. calcium oxalate dihydrate
Answer : C

37. Why do patients with cystic fibrosis form stones?
A. because urine and body secretions are highly concentrated
B. due to renal leak hypercalciuria
C. as a result of distal renal tubular acidosis type I
D. because of reduced or absent of oxalobacter formigenes colonization
Answer : D

38. On treating uric acid stones, excessive alkalinization with potassium citrate could result in all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. formation of triple-phosphate stones
B. infection with Proteus species
C. increase production of endogenous uric acid
D. increase level of uric acid in THE blood
Answer : C

39. What is (are) the indication(s) of ureteral stenting before ESWL?
A. stones in a solitary kidney
B. ureteral stones causing bilateral obstructions
C. a kidney stone of ? 2.5 cm in size
D. all of the above
Answer : D

40. Which event is unlikely to occur after placing a DJ ureteral stent?
A. can be forgotten in place
B. vesico-renal reflux
C. calyceal perforation
D. detrusor irritability and/or hematuria
Answer : C

41. Which of the following factors, positively, affect lower calyceal stone clearance after ESWL?
A. short and wide infundibulum
B. large lower-pole infundibulo-pelvic angle
C. the adjunct usage of PCNL
D. all of the above
Answer : D

42. What is the treatment of choice for a 15 mm stone in a mid calyceal diverticulum?
A. ESWL
B. PCNL with fulguration of the diverticulum
C. ureteroscopy with fulguration of the diverticulum
D. pyelolithotomy with diverticulectomy
Answer : B

43. What does nephrocalcin do?
A. dissolves cystine stones
B. enhances nephrocalcinosis process over old scared areas
C. inhibits Ca.oxalate aggregation and crystallization
D. plays a secondary role in metastatic calcification process
Answer : C

44. What congenital anomaly is unlikely to result in stone formation?
A. left ureterocele
B. bifid right renal pelvis
C. neurogenic bladder
D. bilateral UPJ stenosis
Answer : B

45. What statement is false concerning the use of desmopressin (DDAVP) in renal colic patients?
A. it causes reduction in the mean intra-ureteral pressure
B. it reduces the pain of acute renal colic
C. it has a direct relaxing effect on the renal pelvis and ureteral musculature
D. it is indicated when stones are ? 4 mm in diameter
Answer : D

46. What is true concerning the use of intravenous fluids in renal colic cases?
A. patients should be given large amounts of fluids to hasten stones passage
B. fluids are given to keep the patient well hydrated
C. the recommended regimen is 2 L of ringer lactate over 2 hours
D. fluids are contraindicated if desmopressin (DDAVP) was given
Answer : B

47. What is true concerning uric acid stones?
A. they are metabolic stones that form at high urinary pH
B. they score 800 1000 HU on CT
C. only 25% of affected patients have Gout disease
D. affected patients must stop eating animal protein
Answer : C

48. Which statement is false concerning renal stones related to hyperparathyroidism (HPT)?
A. renal stones are found in 20% of patients with primary HPT
B. acidic arrest promotes crystallisation of calcium phosphate stones related to HPT
C. HPT, vitamin D excess, and malignancy could lead to hypercalcemia and hypercalciuria
D. only surgery can cure primary HPT
Answer : B

49. What is false concerning patient`s preparation for PCNL?
A. active UTI is an absolute contraindication
B. fluoroquinolone is the first choice for antimicrobial prophylaxis
C. withholding aspirin for only 10 days is enough
D. despite sterile urine, stone fragmentation might release hidden bacterial endotoxins and viable bacteria
Answer : B

50. What is the proper sequence of the following stones when ordered from most radiopaque to most radiolucent as they appear on plain Xray film?
A. Ca.oxalate, Ca.phosphate, Na.urate, cystine
B. Ca.phosphate, Ca.oxalate, cystine, Na.urate
C. Ca.oxalate, Ca.phosphate, cystine, Na.urate
D. Ca.phosphate, Ca.oxalate, Na.urate, cystine
Answer : B