Urinary Calculus Disease 1000+ MCQ with answer for GATE

1. How does oral Mg.citrate inhibit Ca.oxalate stone formation?
A. by lowering urinary saturation of Ca.oxalate
B. by preventing heterogeneous nucleation of Ca.oxalate
C. by inhibiting spontaneous precipitation and agglomeration of Ca.oxalate
D. by all of the above
Answer : D

2. What is the principal defect in renal hypercalciuria?
A. impaired renal tubular calcium reabsorption
B. excessive glomerular leak of calcium
C. deficiency of the enzyme xanthine oxidase
D. hypercalcemia
Answer : A

3. What could high dietary protein result in?
A. increase urinary calcium, oxalate, and uric acid excretion
B. decrease urinary calcium; but increase oxalate, and uric acid excretion
C. increased urinary calcium and uric acid; but decrease oxalate excretion
D. decreased urinary calcium, oxalate, and uric acid excretion
Answer : A

4. What does the treatment of hyperuricemia with urate stones include?
A. oral potassium sodium hydrogen citrate granules
B. increase hydration
C. allopurinol
D. all of the above
Answer : D

5. What is false concerning struvite stones?
A. the commonest to form staghorn giant calculi
B. formed by urease producing bacteria
C. antibiotics have a role in the treatment
D. form at the two extremes of urinary pH range
Answer : D

6. What is false concerning cystine stones?
A. have diagnostic hexagonal crystals
B. dont respond to ESWL therapy
C. are highly soluble in water
D. inherited in an autosomal recessive fashion
Answer : C

7. What congenital anomaly is unlikely to result in stone formation?
A. left ureterocele
B. bifid right renal pelvis
C. neurogenic bladder
D. bilateral UPJ stenosis
Answer : B

8. Ureteral stones of ? 7 mm:
A. should be treated with more analgesics
B. must undergo metabolic worked out
C. are unlikely to pass out spontaneously
D. chemolysis should be tried first
Answer : C

9. What stone is inherited as an autosomal recessive trait?
A. xanthine
B. ammonium urate
C. cystine
D. calcium oxalate dihydrate
Answer : C

10. What is a remarkable disadvantage of ultrasonic imaging for ESWL?
A. localization of stones in the ureter is difficult or impossible
B. inability to visualize stones breaking down in real time
C. c. patient`s position on ESWL table is uncomfortable
D. d. inability to visualize radiolucent stones
Answer : A

11. What is (are) the indication(s) of ureteral stenting before ESWL?
A. stones in a solitary kidney
B. ureteral stones causing bilateral obstructions
C. a kidney stone of ? 2.5 cm in size
D. all of the above
Answer : D

12. What type of stones do laxative abusers might develop?
A. ammonium urate
B. sodium urate
C. calcium oxalate
D. calcium phosphate
Answer : A

13. What is the treatment of choice for a 15 mm stone in the lower calyx with a narrow infundibulum?
A. ESWL
B. PCNL
C. radial nephrolithotomy
D. pyelolithotomy with ureteral stenting
Answer : B

14. Two weeks of prolonged wound drainage after a non-stented Anderson-Hynes pyeloplasty. What would be next step in the management?
A. watchful waiting
B. open surgical correction
C. IVU with possible endoscopic ureteral stenting
D. perc. nephrostomy tube insertion
Answer : C

15. Which method of the following stone analysis techniques is based on the interaction of polarized light with the stone crystals?
A. wet chemical analysis
B. thermogravimetry
C. scanning electron microscopy
D. none of the above
Answer : D

16. What metabolic disturbances could result from renal tubular acidosis type I?
A. hypercalciuria and hypocitraturia
B. hypercalciuria and hypercitraturia
C. hypocalciuria and hypocitraturia
D. hypocalciuria and hypercitraturia
Answer : A

17. What is the unfavorable stone characteristic for a rigid URS treatment?
A. size of 5 mm
B. location at the lower calyx
C. density of 400 HU
D. being recurrent
Answer : B

18. How is primary oxaluria treated?
A. terminal ilium resection
B. liver transplantation
C. kidney transplantation
D. regular hemodialysis
Answer : B

19. What is the preferred drug for medical expulsive therapy for lower ureteral stones?
A. furosemide
B. tamsulosin
C. nifedipine
D. diclofenac
Answer : B

20. What type of urinary diversion carries the highest risk of stone formation?
A. Kock pouch
B. Neobladder-to-urethra diversion
C. Florida pouch
D. Indiana pouch
Answer : A

21. Which of the following factors, positively, affect lower calyceal stone clerance after ESWL?
A. short and wide infundibulum
B. large lower-pole infundibulo-pelvic angle
C. the adjunct usage of PCNL
D. all of the above
Answer : D

22. What is false regarding hypomagnesuric calcium nephrolithiasis?
A. it is characterized by low urinary magnesium and citrate
B. magnesium increases renal tubular citrate resorption
C. diarrheal is a remarkable side effect of magnesium therapy
D. potassium-magnesium preparations might restore urinary magnesium and citrate levels
Answer : B

23. Patients having what kind of stones should refrain from eating purines?
A. cysteine
B. urate
C. calcium
D. none of the above
Answer : D

24. What is true concerning primary hyperparathyroidism and stone formation?
A. orthophosphates may have a role in the treatment
B. hyperparathyroidectomy and levothyroxine replacement is the optimum treatment
C. management includes Calcium chelating agent and repeat 24hr urine collection in 3 months
D. surgical excision of the adenoma(s) is the treatment of choice
Answer : D

25. What type of stones is most effectively treated with PCNL?
A. Ca.oxalate monohydrate
B. cystine
C. matrix
D. Ca.oxalate dihydrate
Answer : C

26. Which event is unlikely to occur after placing a DJ ureteral stent?
A. can be forgotten in place
B. vesico-renal reflux
C. calyceal perforation
D. detrusor irritability and/or hematuria
Answer : C

27. What is false concerning recurrent stone formation?
A. best treated by total parathyroidectomy
B. first-time stone formers are at a 50% risk for recurrence
C. males have higher recurrence rate than females
D. stone formers produce stones of the same type every time
Answer : A

28. Which of the following dietary advice is recommended for Ca.oxalate stone formers?
A. limit beef, chicken, pork, eggs, fish, shellfish, and other animal proteins
B. limit beans, nuts, chocolate, coffee, dark green vegetables, and soda
C. limit canned, packaged, and fast foods
D. limit milk, cheese, and other dairy products
Answer : B

29. What is true concerning uric acid stones?
A. they are metabolic stones that form at high urinary pH
B. they score 800 1000 HU on CT
C. only 25% of affected patients have Gout disease
D. affected patients must stop eating animal protein
Answer : C

30. What is true regarding prostatic stones?
A. they are multiple and small in size
B. usually, they are voided spontaneously
C. they, rarely, form large stones within the peripheral zone
D. contrast CT is the conventional method for diagnosis
Answer : A

31. What could high level of sulfate in 24-hr. urine collection mean?
A. dissolving homogenous nucleation
B. high tendency to form cystine sulfate stones
C. indicates the amount of dietary protein
D. post ESWL therapy
Answer : C

32. What does NOT appear as a filling defect in the renal pelvis on IVU?
A. fungal ball
B. radiolucent stone
C. urothelial growth
D. upper end of DJ ureteral stent
Answer : D

33. Which of the following is a relative contra-indication to ESWL?
A. renal insufficiency
B. active urinary tract infection
C. uncorrected bleeding disorder
D. third trimester pregnancy
Answer : A

34. What is false concerning PCNL in horseshoe kidneys?
A. the preferred access into the collecting system is through a posterior calyx
B. the posterior calyceal group is typically more medial than in the normal kidney
C. in most cases the lower pole calyces are posterior
D. it is desirable to make an upper pole collecting system puncture
Answer : C

35. What is the proper sequence of the following stones when ordered from most radiopaque to most radiolucent as they appear on plain Xray film?
A. Ca.oxalate, Ca.phosphate, Na.urate, cystine
B. Ca.phosphate, Ca.oxalate, cystine, Na.urate
C. Ca.oxalate, Ca.phosphate, cystine, Na.urate
D. Ca.phosphate, Ca.oxalate, Na.urate, cystine
Answer : B

36. What does nephrocalcin do?
A. dissolves cystine stones
B. enhances nephrocalcinosis process over old scared areas
C. inhibits Ca.oxalate aggregation and crystallization
D. plays a secondary role in metastatic calcification process
Answer : C

37. What is false concerning staghorn calculus?
A. commonly unilateral
B. commonly due to repeated infections
C. urate stones are the second most common cause of staghorn calculi
D. ESWL monotherapy with ureteral stenting is the ideal treatment
Answer : D

38. What is the first-line treatment of kidney stones of a burden greater than 2 cm?
A. ESWL
B. URS
C. PCNL
D. none of the above
Answer : C

39. For how long a completely obstructed ureter could be respited with no expected permanent damage to renal functions?
A. 2 days
B. 2 weeks
C. 2 months
D. 4 6 hrs.
Answer : B

40. What type of stones is soft, resilient, composed of mucoproteins of urine and serum?
A. matrix
B. indinavir
C. brushite
D. 2,8 dihydroxyadenine
Answer : A

41. What stones are radiopaque on plain X-ray film?
A. 2,8 dihydroxyadenine stones
B. sulfa medications-induced stones
C. calcium oxalate stones
D. matrix stones
Answer : C

42. What is true regarding DJ ureteral stents?
A. can be placed through perc. nephrostomy
B. might slip out, especially in females
C. usually radiopaque
D. all of the above
Answer : D

43. What is the preferred entry point into the collecting system for PCNL for a 2.4 cm renal pelvis stone?
A. anterior lower pole calyx
B. posterior lower pole calyx
C. anterior upper pole calyx
D. posterior upper pole calyx
Answer : B

44. What medication could help in managing carbonate apatite stones?
A. ?-Mercaptopropionylglycine
B. acetohydroxamic acid
C. carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
D. xanthine oxidase inhibitors
Answer : B

45. What statement is false concerning the use of desmopressin (DDAVP) in renal colic patients?
A. it causes reduction in the mean intra-ureteral pressure
B. it reduces the pain of acute renal colic
C. it has a direct relaxing effect on the renal pelvis and ureteral musculature
D. it is indicated when stones are ? 4 mm in diameter
Answer : D

46. Which of the following bacteria split urea?
A. Klebsiella pneumonia
B. Morganella morganii
C. Proteus mirabilis
D. all of the above
Answer : D

47. What are the expected findings on urinalysis in patients with acute renal colic?
A. blood cells more than pus cells
B. pus cells if infection was superadded
C. crystals might appear
D. all of the above
Answer : A

48. What is the most appropriate antibiotic class for prophylaxis before urologic surgery?
A. aminoglycosides
B. macrolides
C. cephalosporins
D. fluoroquinolones
Answer : C

49. What is false concerning the use of antibiotics in stone patients?
A. they are mandatory when urine shows ? 10 WBCs/hpf in symptomatic patients
B. they aim at treating pyonephrosis and urosepsis
C. they should cover Escherichia coli and Staphylococcus, Enterobacter, Proteus, and Klebsiella species
D. All of the above
Answer : D

50. What is (are) true concerning ESWL?
A. a stone is fragmented when the force of the shockwaves overcomes the tensile strength of the stone
B. fragmentation occurs as a result of compressive and tensile forces, erosion, shearing, spalling, and cavitation
C. the generation of compressive and tensile forces and cavitation are thought to be the most important
D. all of the above
Answer : D