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Urinary Calculus Disease 1000+ MCQ with answer for SSC CPO

Thursday 9th of March 2023

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1. What is false concerning primary bladder stones?
A. commonly occur in patients with senile prostatic enlargement
B. common in children exposed to low-protein, low-phosphate diet
C. rarely recur after treatment
D. respond to ESWL
Answer : A
2. What is the Hounsfield density range of uric acid stones?
A. 400 600 HU
B. 600 800 HU
C. 800 1000 HU
D. 1000 1200 HU
Answer : A
3. Which of the following factors, positively, affect lower calyceal stone clearance after ESWL?
A. short and wide infundibulum
B. large lower-pole infundibulo-pelvic angle
C. the adjunct usage of PCNL
D. all of the above
Answer : D
4. What is false concerning obesity and urinary stone formation?
A. obese patients have a higher tendency for uric acid stone formation
B. high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet might increase the risk of stone formation and bone loss
C. metabolic syndrome is associated with high urinary pH
D. Roux-en-Y-gastric bypass surgery may increase the risk for stone formation
Answer : C
5. What is false concerning neonatal nephrolithiasis?
A. frequently caused by loop diuretics
B. stones are often radiolucent
C. may be reversed by the use of thiazides
D. low calcium-to-creatinine ratio predicts stones resolution
Answer : B
6. What is true regarding prostatic stones?
A. they are multiple and small in size
B. usually, they are voided spontaneously
C. they, rarely, form large stones within the peripheral zone
D. contrast CT is the conventional method for diagnosis
Answer : A
7. What is false concerning prostatic stones?
A. composed of calcium phosphate and calcium carbonate
B. the vast majority are asymptomatic
C. most of the calculi are found in the transitional zone
D. they dont affect PSA levels
Answer : C
8. Patients having what kind of stones should refrain from eating purines?
A. cysteine
B. urate
C. calcium
D. none of the above
Answer : D
9. What are the expected findings on urinalysis in patients with acute renal colic?
A. blood cells more than pus cells
B. pus cells if infection was superadded
C. crystals might appear
D. all of the above
Answer : A
10. What is the sure diagnostic finding of Ca.oxalate stones?
A. chemical analysis of a recovered stone
B. hypercalcemia
C. CT finding
D. high breakability on ESWL
Answer : A
11. Which of the following is a relative contra-indication to ESWL?
A. renal insufficiency
B. active urinary tract infection
C. uncorrected bleeding disorder
D. third trimester pregnancy
Answer : A
12. What stone is inherited as an autosomal recessive trait?
A. xanthine
B. ammonium urate
C. cystine
D. calcium oxalate dihydrate
Answer : C
13. In what kind of renal stones do antibiotics help most?
A. indinavir
B. magnesium ammonium phosphate
C. xanthine
D. matrix
Answer : B
14. What is the immediate management of ureteral avulsion on retrieving an upper ureteral stone by a basket?
A. placement of a percutaneous nephrostomy drain
B. surgical exploration and primary repair
C. conservative management
D. endoscopic retrograde ureteral stenting
Answer : A
15. What does the treatment of hyperuricemia with urate stones include?
A. oral potassium sodium hydrogen citrate granules
B. increase hydration
C. allopurinol
D. all of the above
Answer : D
16. What is false regarding hypomagnesuric calcium nephrolithiasis?
A. it is characterized by low urinary magnesium and citrate
B. magnesium increases renal tubular citrate resorption
C. diarrheal is a remarkable side effect of magnesium therapy
D. potassium-magnesium preparations might restore urinary magnesium and citrate levels
Answer : B
17. Why do patients with cystic fibrosis form stones?
A. because urine and body secretions are highly concentrated
B. due to renal leak hypercalciuria
C. as a result of distal renal tubular acidosis type I
D. because of reduced or absent of oxalobacter formigenes colonization
Answer : D
18. What does nephrocalcin do?
A. dissolves cystine stones
B. enhances nephrocalcinosis process over old scared areas
C. inhibits Ca.oxalate aggregation and crystallization
D. plays a secondary role in metastatic calcification process
Answer : C
19. Which patient is at lowest risk for the development of perinephric hematoma after ESWL?
A. hypertensive patient
B. patient on aspirin withheld 5 days prior to ESWL
C. a stone in a scared poorly functioning kidney
D. ESWL every other day
Answer : C
20. What sequence of ureteral parts represents the most to least favorable stone response to ESWL treatment?
A. upper, lower, mid
B lower, upper, mid
C. mid, upper, lower
D. mid, lower, upper
Answer : A
21. Where do Randall plaques originate from?
A. transitional epithelium lining minor calyces
B. transitional epithelium lining major calyces
C. basement membrane of the loops of Henle
D. papillary tips of polar pyramids
Answer : C
22. What is (are) true concerning ESWL?
A. a stone is fragmented when the force of the shockwaves overcomes the tensile strength of the stone
B. fragmentation occurs as a result of compressive and tensile forces, erosion, shearing, spalling, and cavitation
C. the generation of compressive and tensile forces and cavitation are thought to be the most important
D. all of the above
Answer : D
23. What parameter is NOT considered in the stone burden concept?
A. the surface area of the stones
B. the volume of the stones
C. the density of the stones
D. the number of the stones
Answer : C
24. What is false concerning staghorn calculus?
A. commonly unilateral
B. commonly due to repeated infections
C. urate stones are the second most common cause of staghorn calculi
D. ESWL monotherapy with ureteral stenting is the ideal treatment
Answer : D
25. On treating uric acid stones, excessive alkalinization with potassium citrate could result in all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. formation of triple-phosphate stones
B. infection with Proteus species
C. increase production of endogenous uric acid
D. increase level of uric acid in THE blood
Answer : C
26. What is false regarding DJ ureteral stents?
A. can be introduced from the bladder or kidney or any part of the ureter`s course
B. the standard adult size is 32 cm long, 4 mm calibre
C. might result in encrustations and ureteral obstruction
D. might result in ureteral dilation
Answer : B
27. What is (are) the indication(s) of ureteral stenting before ESWL?
A. stones in a solitary kidney
B. ureteral stones causing bilateral obstructions
C. a kidney stone of ? 2.5 cm in size
D. all of the above
Answer : D
28. What risk factor(s) promote(s) stone formation?
A. dehydration
B. metabolic disorders
C. congenital anomalies
D. all of the above
Answer : A
29. What is true concerning the use of intravenous fluids in renal colic cases?
A. patients should be given large amounts of fluids to hasten stones passage
B. fluids are given to keep the patient well hydrated
C. the recommended regimen is 2 L of ringer lactate over 2 hours
D. fluids are contraindicated if desmopressin (DDAVP) was given
Answer : B
30. What is false concerning recurrent stone formation?
A. best treated by total parathyroidectomy
B. first-time stone formers are at a 50% risk for recurrence
C. males have higher recurrence rate than females
D. stone formers produce stones of the same type every time
Answer : A
31. What is the treatment of choice for a 15 mm stone in the lower calyx with a narrow infundibulum?
A. ESWL
B. PCNL
C. radial nephrolithotomy
D. pyelolithotomy with ureteral stenting
Answer : B
32. What is the most favorable stone characteristic for PCNL treatment?
A. ? 2 cm diameter
B. upper calyx location
C. Na.urate composition
D. 600 - 800 HU density
Answer : A
33. A 24-hr urine collection of a recurrent Ca. oxalate stone former patient having Crohn`s disease might reveal:
A. high citrate, high oxalate
B. low citrate, low oxalate
C. high citrate, low oxalate
D. low citrate, high oxalate
Answer : D
34. What medication(s) could be helpful in the management of cystinuria?
A. ?-Mercaptopropionylglycine
B. d-Penicillamine
C. a & b
D. none of the above
Answer : C
35. What is false concerning struvite stones?
A. the commonest to form staghorn giant calculi
B. formed by urease producing bacteria
C. antibiotics have a role in the treatment
D. form at the two extremes of urinary pH range
Answer : D
36. What kind of stones is more likely to recur with infections if not removed completely?
A. urate
B. triple phosphate
C. oxalate monohydrate
D. matrix
Answer : B
37. What is the most favorable stone characteristics for laparoscopic and robotic approaches for the treatment of a kidney stone?
A. a stone in the lower calyx with a wide mouth of infundibulum and obtuse lower calyx to ureter angle
B. a stone in an anterior group calyceal diverticulum with thin overlying renal parenchyma
C. 5 mm calcium-containing stone in an intrarenal pelvis and wide UPJ
D. 6 years post anatrophic nephrolithotomy, recurrent mid calyceal stone
Answer : B
38. When urine reaches a high tendency to form stones, the situation is called:
A. lithogenic anion to cation ratio
B. Randall cut off
C. saturation index
D. solubility product
Answer : C
39. What is the preferred drug for medical expulsive therapy for lower ureteral stones?
A. furosemide
B. tamsulosin
C. nifedipine
D. diclofenac Answer : B
40. What is the principal defect in renal hypercalciuria?
A. impaired renal tubular calcium reabsorption
B. excessive glomerular leak of calcium
C. deficiency of the enzyme xanthine oxidase
D. hypercalcemia
Answer : A
41. What is false concerning PCNL in horseshoe kidneys?
A. the preferred access into the collecting system is through a posterior calyx
B. the posterior calyceal group is typically more medial than in the normal kidney
C. in most cases the lower pole calyces are posterior
D. it is desirable to make an upper pole collecting system puncture
Answer : C
42. Which statement is false concerning renal stones related to hyperparathyroidism (HPT)?
A. renal stones are found in 20% of patients with primary HPT
B. acidic arrest promotes crystallisation of calcium phosphate stones related to HPT
C. HPT, vitamin D excess, and malignancy could lead to hypercalcemia and hypercalciuria
D. only surgery can cure primary HPT
Answer : B
43. What could high dietary protein result in?
A. increase urinary calcium, oxalate, and uric acid excretion
B. decrease urinary calcium; but increase oxalate, and uric acid excretion
C. increased urinary calcium and uric acid; but decrease oxalate excretion
D. decreased urinary calcium, oxalate, and uric acid excretion
Answer : A
44. What is the least likely condition to form bladder stones?
A. spinal cord injury
B. senile enlargement of prostate
C. augmented bladder
D. neurogenic hyper-reflexive bladder
Answer : D
45. Which method of the following stone analysis techniques is based on the interaction of polarized light with the stone crystals?
A. wet chemical analysis
B. thermogravimetry
C. scanning electron microscopy
D. none of the above
Answer : D
46. What metabolic disturbances could result from renal tubular acidosis type I?
A. hypercalciuria and hypocitraturia
B. hypercalciuria and hypercitraturia
C. hypocalciuria and hypocitraturia
D. hypocalciuria and hypercitraturia
Answer : A
47. What is true concerning uric acid stones?
A. they are metabolic stones that form at high urinary pH
B. they score 800 1000 HU on CT
C. only 25% of affected patients have Gout disease
D. affected patients must stop eating animal protein
Answer : C
48. What is the treatment of choice for a 15 mm stone in a mid calyceal diverticulum?
A. ESWL
B. PCNL with fulguration of the diverticulum
C. ureteroscopy with fulguration of the diverticulum
D. pyelolithotomy with diverticulectomy
Answer : B
49. What is the preferred entry point into the collecting system for PCNL for a 2.4 cm renal pelvis stone?
A. anterior lower pole calyx
B. posterior lower pole calyx
C. anterior upper pole calyx
D. posterior upper pole calyx
Answer : B
50. What is the composition of brushite stones?
A. calcium phosphate
B. calcium oxalate monohydrate
C. sodium urate
D. 2,8 dihydroxyadenine
Answer : A

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