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Urinary Calculus Disease 1000+ MCQ with answer for UPSC CSE

Thursday 9th of March 2023

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1. What is the incidence risk of ureteral strictures following ureteroscopy?
A. 3 6 %
B. 12 15 %
C. 0.4 0.8 %
D. 0.09 0.14 %
Answer : A
2. What could high level of sulfate in 24-hr. urine collection mean?
A. dissolving homogenous nucleation
B. high tendency to form cystine sulfate stones
C. indicates the amount of dietary protein
D. post ESWL therapy
Answer : C
3. What risk factor(s) promote(s) stone formation?
A. dehydration
B. metabolic disorders
C. congenital anomalies
D. all of the above
Answer : A
4. What is the fatality risk if a triple-phosphate staghorn stone left untreated?
A. 0 10%
B. 10 20%
C. 20 30%
D. 30 40%
Answer : C
5. What type of stones is soft, resilient, composed of mucoproteins of urine and serum?
A. matrix
B. indinavir
C. brushite
D. 2,8 dihydroxyadenine
Answer : A
6. What bowel surgery could result in enteric hyperoxaluria?
A. right hemicolectomy
B. small bowel resection
C. Roux-en-Y gastric bypass
D. b & c
Answer : D
7. What is false regarding hypomagnesuric calcium nephrolithiasis?
A. it is characterized by low urinary magnesium and citrate
B. magnesium increases renal tubular citrate resorption
C. diarrheal is a remarkable side effect of magnesium therapy
D. potassium-magnesium preparations might restore urinary magnesium and citrate levels
Answer : B
8. When should renal stone patients be evaluated for metabolic diseases?
A. when stones are multiple and/or recurrent
B. when stones form in childhood
C. in cases where nephrocalcinosis and urolithiasis are present
D. all of the above
Answer : D
9. What situation carries lower risk for lung injury during supracostal upper pole access for PCNL?
A. placing the patient in anti-Trendelenburg position
B. making the puncture under local anesthesia
C. injection Co2 gas to create a safety space under the diaphragm before puncturing
D. making the puncture during full expiration
Answer : D
10. What is the most common composition of ureteral stones?
A. Ca.phosphate
B. Ca.oxalate
C. Na.urate
D. struvite
Answer : B
11. What is the most important parameter that determines the treatment modality of a kidney stone?
A. stone chemical composition
B. stone burden
C. first stone vs. recurrent
D. stone density
Answer : B
12. What is false concerning staghorn calculus?
A. commonly unilateral
B. commonly due to repeated infections
C. urate stones are the second most common cause of staghorn calculi
D. ESWL monotherapy with ureteral stenting is the ideal treatment
Answer : D
13. What is false concerning primary bladder stones?
A. commonly occur in patients with senile prostatic enlargement
B. common in children exposed to low-protein, low-phosphate diet
C. rarely recur after treatment
D. respond to ESWL
Answer : A
14. What metabolic disturbances could result from renal tubular acidosis type I?
A. hypercalciuria and hypocitraturia
B. hypercalciuria and hypercitraturia
C. hypocalciuria and hypocitraturia
D. hypocalciuria and hypercitraturia
Answer : A
15. Which of the following factors, positively, affect lower calyceal stone clearance after ESWL?
A. short and wide infundibulum
B. large lower-pole infundibulo-pelvic angle
C. the adjunct usage of PCNL
D. all of the above
Answer : D
16. What kind of stones is most amenable to ESWL?
A. cystine
B. brushite
C. Ca.oxalate monohydrate
D. Ca.oxalate dihydrate
Answer : D
17. What is false regarding DJ ureteral stents?
A. can be introduced from the bladder or kidney or any part of the ureter`s course
B. the standard adult size is 32 cm long, 4 mm calibre
C. might result in encrustations and ureteral obstruction
D. might result in ureteral dilation
Answer : B
18. Patients having what kind of stones should refrain from eating purines?
A. cysteine
B. urate
C. calcium
D. none of the above
Answer : D
19. What is the most common organism that might complicate PCNL?
A. Proteus mirabilis
B. E. coli
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D. Staphylococcus epidermidis
Answer : D
20. What could high dietary protein result in?
A. increase urinary calcium, oxalate, and uric acid excretion
B. decrease urinary calcium; but increase oxalate, and uric acid excretion
C. increased urinary calcium and uric acid; but decrease oxalate excretion
D. decreased urinary calcium, oxalate, and uric acid excretion
Answer : A
21. Two weeks of prolonged wound drainage after a non-stented Andersn-Hynes pyeloplasty. What would be next step in the management?
A. watchful waiting
B. open surgical correction
C. IVU with possible endoscopic ureteral stenting
D. perc. nephrostomy tube insertion
Answer : C
22. What is true regarding a stone in a urethral diverticulum?
A. is symptomless
B. should undergo a trial of milking out
C. diverticulectomy and stone extraction is the treatment of choice
D. ESWL is the preferred treatment option
Answer : C
23. Expectant therapy for ureteral stones is indicated when:
A. stone size of ? 4 mm
B. stone burden of ? 22 mm
C. there is a distal partial obstruction
D. the patient has end-stage renal failure
Answer : A
24. How can the effectiveness of ESWL treatment session be enhanced?
A. by ensuring optimal coupling of the patient to the lithotripter
B. by running the treatment at a slower rate (60 shocks/min)
C. by running the treatment with general anesthesia
D. by all of the above
Answer : D
25. What medication(s) could be helpful in the management of cystinuria?
A. ?-Mercaptopropionylglycine
B. d-Penicillamine
C. a & b
D. none of the above
Answer : C
26. What is (are) the indication(s) of using DJ ureteral catheters?
A. to stent the ureter after ureteral surgery
B. to facilitate stone passage
C. after a tough ureteroscopy procedure
D. all of the above
Answer : D
27. What is false concerning neonatal nephrolithiasis?
A. frequently caused by loop diuretics
B. stones are often radiolucent
C. may be reversed by the use of thiazides
D. low calcium-to-creatinine ratio predicts stones resolution
Answer : B
28. When urine reaches a high tendency to form stones, the situation is called:
A. lithogenic anion to cation ratio
B. Randall cut off
C. saturation index
D. solubility product
Answer : C
29. What is false concerning PCNL in horseshoe kidneys?
A. the preferred access into the collecting system is through a posterior calyx
B. the posterior calyceal group is typically more medial than in the normal kidney
C. in most cases the lower pole calyces are posterior
D. it is desirable to make an upper pole collecting system puncture
Answer : C
30. What type of stones is most effectively treated with PCNL?
A. Ca.oxalate monohydrate
B. cystine
C. matrix
D. Ca.oxalate dihydrate
Answer : C
31. What is true regarding prostatic stones?
A. they are multiple and small in size
B. usually, they are voided spontaneously
C. they, rarely, form large stones within the peripheral zone
D. contrast CT is the conventional method for diagnosis
Answer : A
32. On treating uric acid stones, excessive alkalinization with potassium citrate could result in all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. formation of triple-phosphate stones
B. infection with Proteus species
C. increase production of endogenous uric acid
D. increase level of uric acid in THE blood
Answer : C
33. What could carry the least risk of colon injury during PCNL?
A. subcostal puncture performed during full expiration
B. previous open nephrolithotomy
C. access lateral to the posterior axillary line
D. horseshoe kidney
Answer : B
34. What kind of stones is more likely to recur with infections if not removed completely?
A. urate
B. triple phosphate
C. oxalate monohydrate
D. matrix
Answer : B
35. Which of the following is a relative contra-indication to ESWL?
A. renal insufficiency
B. active urinary tract infection
C. uncorrected bleeding disorder
D. third trimester pregnancy
Answer : A
36. What is the treatment of choice for a 15 mm stone in the lower calyx with a narrow infundibulum?
A. ESWL
B. PCNL
C. radial nephrolithotomy
D. pyelolithotomy with ureteral stenting
Answer : B
37. What is the principal defect in renal hypercalciuria?
A. impaired renal tubular calcium reabsorption
B. excessive glomerular leak of calcium
C. deficiency of the enzyme xanthine oxidase
D. hypercalcemia
Answer : A
38. Ureteral stones of ? 7 mm:
A. should be treated with more analgesics
B. must undergo metabolic worked out
C. are unlikely to pass out spontaneously
D. chemolysis should be tried first
Answer : C
39. What is true concerning uric acid stones?
A. they are metabolic stones that form at high urinary pH
B. they score 800 1000 HU on CT
C. only 25% of affected patients have Gout disease
D. affected patients must stop eating animal protein
Answer : C
40. What type of shockwaves is generated by spark-gap technology?
A. piezoelectric
B. electrohydraulic
C. electromagnetic
D. microexplosive
Answer : B
41. What is the most favorable stone characteristic for PCNL treatment?
A. ? 2 cm diameter
B. upper calyx location
C. Na.urate composition
D. 600 - 800 HU density
Answer : A
42. What is false concerning struvite stones?
A. the commonest to form staghorn giant calculi
B. formed by urease producing bacteria
C. antibiotics have a role in the treatment
D. form at the two extremes of urinary pH range
Answer : D
43. What type of stones do laxative abusers might develop?
A. ammonium urate
B. sodium urate
C. calcium oxalate
D. calcium phosphate
Answer : A
44. What is false concerning cystine stones?
A. result from an inherited defect of renal tubular reabsorption of cysteine
B. characteristically, urate and cysteine stone are radiolucent
C. cysteine is a dibasic amino acid
D. on plain X-ray, cysteine stones exhibit ground-glass appearance
Answer : B
45. What is the sure diagnostic finding of Ca.oxalate stones?
A. chemical analysis of a recovered stone
B. hypercalcemia
C. CT finding
D. high breakability on ESWL
Answer : A
46. What is false concerning the use of antibiotics in stone patients?
A. they are mandatory when urine shows ? 10 WBCs/hpf in symptomatic patients
B. they aim at treating pyonephrosis and urosepsis
C. they should cover Escherichia coli and Staphylococcus, Enterobacter, Proteus, and Klebsiella species
D. All of the above
Answer : D
47. Worldwide, the commonest type of urinary stones is:
A. calcium monohydrate
B. calcium oxalate
C. ammonium urate
D. none of the above
Answer : B
48. What is the preferred entry point into the collecting system for PCNL for a 2.4 cm renal pelvis stone?
A. anterior lower pole calyx
B. posterior lower pole calyx
C. anterior upper pole calyx
D. posterior upper pole calyx
Answer : B
49. Which of the following dietary advice is recommended for Ca.oxalate stone formers?
A. limit beef, chicken, pork, eggs, fish, shellfish, and other animal proteins
B. limit beans, nuts, chocolate, coffee, dark green vegetables, and soda
C. limit canned, packaged, and fast foods
D. limit milk, cheese, and other dairy products
Answer : B
50. What is the Hounsfield density range of uric acid stones?
A. 400 600 HU
B. 600 800 HU
C. 800 1000 HU
D. 1000 1200 HU
Answer : A

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