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Urinary Calculus Disease MCQ Solved Paper for RRB NTPC

Thursday 9th of March 2023

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1. What is false concerning primary bladder stones?
A. commonly occur in patients with senile prostatic enlargement
B. common in children exposed to low-protein, low-phosphate diet
C. rarely recur after treatment
D. respond to ESWL
Answer : A
2. What is the most common organism that might complicate PCNL?
A. Proteus mirabilis
B. E. coli
C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D. Staphylococcus epidermidis
Answer : D
3. What bowel surgery could result in enteric hyperoxaluria?
A. right hemicolectomy
B. small bowel resection
C. Roux-en-Y gastric bypass
D. b & c
Answer : D
4. What is the most common composition of ureteral stones?
A. Ca.phosphate
B. Ca.oxalate
C. Na.urate
D. struvite
Answer : B
5. What is the unfavorable stone characteristic for a rigid URS treatment?
A. size of 5 mm
B. location at the lower calyx
C. density of 400 HU
D. being recurrent
Answer : B
6. What is the preferred entry point into the collecting system for PCNL for a 2.4 cm renal pelvis stone?
A. anterior lower pole calyx
B. posterior lower pole calyx
C. anterior upper pole calyx
D. posterior upper pole calyx
Answer : B
7. What does nephrocalcin do?
A. dissolves cystine stones
B. enhances nephrocalcinosis process over old scared areas
C. inhibits Ca.oxalate aggregation and crystallization
D. plays a secondary role in metastatic calcification process
Answer : C
8. What is the preferred irrigation fluid during PCNL?
A. physiological saline 0.9%
B. glycine 1.5%
C. balanced salt solution
D. distilled water
Answer : A
9. Which event is unlikely to occur after placing a DJ ureteral stent?
A. can be forgotten in place
B. vesico-renal reflux
C. calyceal perforation
D. detrusor irritability and/or hematuria
Answer : C
10. What is the proper sequence of the following stones when ordered from most radiopaque to most radiolucent as they appear on plain Xray film?
A. Ca.oxalate, Ca.phosphate, Na.urate, cystine
B. Ca.phosphate, Ca.oxalate, cystine, Na.urate
C. Ca.oxalate, Ca.phosphate, cystine, Na.urate
D. Ca.phosphate, Ca.oxalate, Na.urate, cystine
Answer : B
11. What is (are) true concerning ESWL?
A. a stone is fragmented when the force of the shockwaves overcomes the tensile strength of the stone
B. fragmentation occurs as a result of compressive and tensile forces, erosion, shearing, spalling, and cavitation
C. the generation of compressive and tensile forces and cavitation are thought to be the most important
D. all of the above
Answer : D
12. How can the effectiveness of ESWL treatment session be enhanced?
A. by ensuring optimal coupling of the patient to the lithotripter
B. by running the treatment at a slower rate (60 shocks/min)
C. by running the treatment with general anesthesia
D. by all of the above
Answer : D
13. What is true concerning primary hyperparathyroidism and stone formation?
A. orthophosphates may have a role in the treatment
B. hyperparathyroidectomy and levothyroxine replacement is the optimum treatment
C. management includes Calcium chelating agent and repeat 24hr urine collection in 3 months
D. surgical excision of the adenoma(s) is the treatment of choice
Answer : D
14. What type of urinary diversion carries the highest risk of stone formation?
A. Kock pouch
B. Neobladder-to-urethra diversion
C. Florida pouch
D. Indiana pouch
Answer : A
15. What is the principal defect in renal hypercalciuria?
A. impaired renal tubular calcium reabsorption
B. excessive glomerular leak of calcium
C. deficiency of the enzyme xanthine oxidase
D. hypercalcemia
Answer : A
16. The process where nucleation and further precipitations occur by different components to form urinary stones, is called:
A. classical nucleation theory
B. heterogeneous nucleation
C. suspension solution
D. concentric lamination
Answer : B
17. What congenital anomaly is unlikely to result in stone formation?
A. left ureterocele
B. bifid right renal pelvis
C. neurogenic bladder
D. bilateral UPJ stenosis
Answer : B
18. Which of the following factors, positively, affect lower calyceal stone clearance after ESWL?
A. short and wide infundibulum
B. large lower-pole infundibulo-pelvic angle
C. the adjunct usage of PCNL
D. all of the above
Answer : D
19. A 24-hr urine collection of a recurrent Ca. oxalate stone former patient having Crohn`s disease might reveal:
A. high citrate, high oxalate
B. low citrate, low oxalate
C. high citrate, low oxalate
D. low citrate, high oxalate
Answer : D
20. What does the treatment of hyperuricemia with urate stones include?
A. oral potassium sodium hydrogen citrate granules
B. increase hydration
C. allopurinol
D. all of the above
Answer : D
21. What does NOT appear as a filling defect in the renal pelvis on IVU?
A. fungal ball
B. radiolucent stone
C. urothelial growth
D. upper end of DJ ureteral stent
Answer : D
22. When should renal stone patients be evaluated for metabolic diseases?
A. when stones are multiple and/or recurrent
B. when stones form in childhood
C. in cases where nephrocalcinosis and urolithiasis are present
D. all of the above
Answer : D
23. Which of the following bacteria split urea?
A. Klebsiella pneumonia
B. Morganella morganii
C. Proteus mirabilis
D. all of the above
Answer : D
24. What is false regarding hypomagnesuric calcium nephrolithiasis?
A. it is characterized by low urinary magnesium and citrate
B. magnesium increases renal tubular citrate resorption
C. diarrheal is a remarkable side effect of magnesium therapy
D. potassium-magnesium preparations might restore urinary magnesium and citrate levels
Answer : B
25. Ureteral stones of ? 7 mm:
A. should be treated with more analgesics
B. must undergo metabolic worked out
C. are unlikely to pass out spontaneously
D. chemolysis should be tried first
Answer : C
26. What is the incidence risk of ureteral strictures following ureteroscopy?
A. 3 6 %
B. 12 15 %
C. 0.4 0.8 %
D. 0.09 0.14 %
Answer : A
27. What is false concerning cystine stones?
A. result from an inherited defect of renal tubular reabsorption of cysteine
B. characteristically, urate and cysteine stone are radiolucent
C. cysteine is a dibasic amino acid
D. on plain X-ray, cysteine stones exhibit ground-glass appearance
Answer : B
28. Invasive intervention in stone patients is NOT indicated in the following condition:
A. stone size
B. unrelieved obstruction
C. infection and septicemia
D. recurrent stone formation
Answer : D
29. What is false concerning patient`s preparation for PCNL?
A. active UTI is an absolute contraindication
B. fluoroquinolone is the first choice for antimicrobial prophylaxis
C. withholding aspirin for only 10 days is enough
D. despite sterile urine, stone fragmentation might release hidden bacterial endotoxins and viable bacteria
Answer : B
30. What is the favorable stone characteristic for ESWL treatment?
A. 1000 - 1300 HU density
B. 5 - 10 mm diameter
C. lower calyx location
D. mid ureteral location
Answer : B
31. Which of the following dietary advice is recommended for Ca.oxalate stone formers?
A. limit beef, chicken, pork, eggs, fish, shellfish, and other animal proteins
B. limit beans, nuts, chocolate, coffee, dark green vegetables, and soda
C. limit canned, packaged, and fast foods
D. limit milk, cheese, and other dairy products
Answer : B
32. What kind of stones is more likely to recur with infections if not removed completely?
A. urate
B. triple phosphate
C. oxalate monohydrate
D. matrix
Answer : B
33. What condition might NOT cause uric acid stones?
A. Tumor lysis syndrome
B. hypoparathyroidism
C. myeloproliferative disorder
D. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
Answer : B
34. What stones are radiopaque on plain X-ray film?
A. 2,8 dihydroxyadenine stones
B. sulfa medications-induced stones
C. calcium oxalate stones
D. matrix stones
Answer : C
35. What medication could help in managing carbonate apatite stones?
A. ?-Mercaptopropionylglycine
B. acetohydroxamic acid
C. carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
D. xanthine oxidase inhibitors
Answer : B
36. Expectant therapy for ureteral stones is indicated when:
A. stone size of ? 4 mm
B. stone burden of ? 22 mm
C. there is a distal partial obstruction
D. the patient has end-stage renal failure
Answer : A
37. What is false concerning recurrent stone formation?
A. best treated by total parathyroidectomy
B. first-time stone formers are at a 50% risk for recurrence
C. males have higher recurrence rate than females
D. stone formers produce stones of the same type every time
Answer : A
38. What is false concerning obesity and urinary stone formation?
A. obese patients have a higher tendency for uric acid stone formation
B. high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet might increase the risk of stone formation and bone loss
C. metabolic syndrome is associated with high urinary pH
D. Roux-en-Y-gastric bypass surgery may increase the risk for stone formation
Answer : C
39. What is the treatment of choice for a 15 mm stone in a mid calyceal diverticulum?
A. ESWL
B. PCNL with fulguration of the diverticulum
C. ureteroscopy with fulguration of the diverticulum
D. pyelolithotomy with diverticulectomy
Answer : B
40. What is the immediate management of ureteral avulsion on retrieving an upper ureteral stone by a basket?
A. placement of a percutaneous nephrostomy drain
B. surgical exploration and primary repair
C. conservative management
D. endoscopic retrograde ureteral stenting
Answer : A
41. What is the fatality risk if a triple-phosphate staghorn stone left untreated?
A. 0 10%
B. 10 20%
C. 20 30%
D. 30 40%
Answer : C
42. What is true concerning the use of intravenous fluids in renal colic cases?
A. patients should be given large amounts of fluids to hasten stones passage
B. fluids are given to keep the patient well hydrated
C. the recommended regimen is 2 L of ringer lactate over 2 hours
D. fluids are contraindicated if desmopressin (DDAVP) was given
Answer : B
43. What is false concerning struvite stones?
A. the commonest to form staghorn giant calculi
B. formed by urease producing bacteria
C. antibiotics have a role in the treatment
D. form at the two extremes of urinary pH range
Answer : D
44. What situation carries lower risk for lung injury during supracostal upper pole access for PCNL?
A. placing the patient in anti-Trendelenburg position
B. making the puncture under local anesthesia
C. injection Co2 gas to create a safety space under the diaphragm before puncturing
D. making the puncture during full expiration
Answer : D
45. What is false concerning primary bladder stones?
A. commoner in females than in males
B. in pediatrics, are of calcium oxalate and/or ammonium urate composition
C. caused by bladder outlet obstruction
D. might result in bladder cancer
Answer : A
46. What is false concerning cystine stones?
A. have diagnostic hexagonal crystals
B. dont respond to ESWL therapy
C. are highly soluble in water
D. inherited in an autosomal recessive fashion
Answer : C
47. ESWL in pediatric patients is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. often need sedation or anesthesia
B. vesico-ureteral reflux must be excluded
C. pediatrics have a higher clearance rate of stones when compared to adults
D. safety measures must be taken to avoid lung contusions
Answer : B
48. What is the Hounsfield density range of uric acid stones?
A. 400 600 HU
B. 600 800 HU
C. 800 1000 HU
D. 1000 1200 HU
Answer : A
49. What stone is inherited as an autosomal recessive trait?
A. xanthine
B. ammonium urate
C. cystine
D. calcium oxalate dihydrate
Answer : C
50. What parameter impairs the kidney stone-free rate, after ESWL?
A. short skin-to-stone distance (SSD)
B. end-stage renal failure
C. a stone in the upper calyx
D. the presence of a 30 cm, 4.7 Fr ureteral stent in situ
Answer : B

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