Urologic infections and inflammations 1000+ MCQ with answer for CAT

1. HIV infection increases the incidence of the following cancers, EXCEPT:
A. Kaposi sarcoma,
B. Hodgkin lymphoma
C. non-Hodgkin lymphoma
D. cervical cancer
Answer : B

2. What is false concerning cystitis glandularis?
A. rarely, the urothelial cell nests show a central lumen lined by glandular epithelium
B. In some cases, it may form polypoid masses that mimic urothelial neoplasms
C. It might appear as multinodular exophytic mass seen on cystoscopy
D. cystitis cystica and cystitis glandularis frequently coexist in the same specimen
Answer : A

3. Asymptomatic bacteriuria should be treated in the following situations:
A. in the elderly
B. in long-term catheterized patient
C. in pregnancy
D. none of the above
Answer : C

4. What is true concerning granulomatous inflammation of the prostate?
A. is a common cause of elevated PSA level
B. might follow BCG treatment
C. is sequelae of untreated type III-b prostatitis
D. shows homogenous enhancement following Gd-DTPA on prostate MRI
Answer : B

5. During the initial 3-month period of HIV infection, what would be the best diagnostic lab test?
A. viral load assay
B. western blot analysis
C. southern blot analysis
D. HIV-1/HIV-2 serology assay
Answer : A

6. What is false concerning antiretroviral medications?
A. multiple antiretroviral drugs can be combined into a single pill
B. might cause radiolucent renal stones
C. can lead to a significant rise in the serum level of PDE5 inhibitors, if taken simultaneously
D. have the advantage of structured treatment interruptions (drug holidays)
Answer : D

7. What is true regarding Xanthogranulomatous Pyelonephritis?
A. CT shows the characteristic bear paw sign
B. it is an infected, obstructed, poorly functioning kidney containing stones
C. nephrectomy is the treatment
D. all of the above
Answer : D

8. What condition(s) could occur in schistosomal ureter?
A. beading of the lower ureteral segment
B. ureteral fibrosis and calcifications of the distal ureter
C. stricture at the uretero-vesical junction
D. all of the above
Answer : D

9. As per NIH classification of prostatitis, which type requires no treatment?
A. type I
B. type II
C. type III
D. type IV
Answer : D

10. What is false regarding biopsy-taking from interstitial cystitis bladder?
A. no pathognomonic histology for interstitial cystitis
B. basically, biopsies are performed to exclude carcinomas and other varieties of cystitis
C. diagnostic biopsies include the presence of discrete micro-ulcers and increased numbers of mast cells in the detrusor muscle or submucosa
D. none of the above
Answer : C

11. What is false regarding schistosomal cystitis?
A. an esinophilic immune reaction is generated in response to the eggs
B. chronic schistosomiasis can eventually result in small bladder and the development of cancers
C. schistosoma mansoni often causes urinary tract infections
D. could cause inflammatory polys and recurrent hematuria
Answer : C

12. What is the proper term to describe high bacterial count in urine without pus?
A. asymptomatic bacteriuria
B. sterile pyouria
C. bacterial colonization
D. unresolved bacteriuria
Answer : C

13. What is the most virulent factor for bacterial adherence?
A. P blood group
B. fimbria
C. pili
D. hemolysin
Answer : C

14. What is true regarding balanoposthitis?
A. is best diagnosed by ascending urethrography
B. occurs mostly in diabetic and immunosuppressed patients
C. could be due to maceration injury, irritant dermatitis, or Candida
D. commonly presents with deep inguinal lymphadenopathy
Answer : C

15. What host`s factors do NOT increase the risk of developing infections?
A. advanced age
B. anatomical anomalies
C. poor drug compliance
D. smoking
Answer : C

16. What is false regarding malakoplakia?
A. is an uncommon granulomatous disease that affect the skin and/or urinary bladder
B. it might be due to a disturbed function of B lymphocytes
C. characterized by the presence of basophilic inclusion structure (Michaelis-Gutmann body)
D. it might be due to a defective phagolysosomal activity of monocytes or macrophages
Answer : B

17. What is the most common serotype of HPV associated with squamous cell carcinoma of the penis?
A. 16
B. 18
C. 22
D. 12
Answer : A

18. What is (are) the cause(s) of recurrent community acquired UTI in women?
A. uncontrolled DM
B. sexual activity with multiple partners
C. high vaginal receptivity to bacterial adherence
D. all of the above
Answer : D

19. What group of patients should be treated for UTI only when symptomatic?
A. patients with indwelling catheters
B. neurogenic bladder patients on CIC
C. pregnant women D. children under 5 years
Answer : A

20. All of the following etiologies for interstitial cystitis have been theorized, EXCEPT:
A. allergic, type I hypersensitivity response
B. pelvic floor dysfunction
C. up-regulation of histaminergic and muscarinic neuro-receptors
D. neural hypersensitivity
Answer : A

21. What kind of cystitis does NOT progress to malignancy?
A. foreign-body cystitis due to vesical calculi
B. Von Brunn`s nests of cystitis cystica and cystitis glandularis
C. schistosomiasis cystitis
D. inverted papilloma of the bladder
Answer : B

22. Which of the following conditions does NOT cause bacterial persistence?
A. perivesical abscess with fistula to bladder
B. acute tubular necrosis
C. renal papillary necrosis
D. xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis
Answer : C

23. What are the sequelae of recurrent uncomplicated UTI in young women?
A. minimal
B. chronic persistent infections
C. chronic relapsing infections
D. bouts of chronic pyelonephritis
Answer : A

24. Irritative LUTS and dyspareunia in postmenopausal women are most likely to be due to:
A. giggle incontinence
B. estrogen deficiency
C. cystitis glandularis
D. cystitis cystica
Answer : B

25. What is true regarding honeymoon cystitis?
A. is a self-limiting infection where antibiotics are not required
B. is exclusively for UTI experienced by a girl after sexual intercourse on her wedding night
C. post-coital voiding has no value in the occurrence of the infection
D. self-initiated medication helps control the infection
Answer : D

26. What is false regarding Fournier`s gangrene?
A. is defined as a polymicrobial chronic infection of the perineal, perianal, or genital areas
B. as the disease progresses, branches from the inferior epigastric, deep circumflex iliac, and external pudendal arteries get thrombosed
C. presents as a dark skinned-scrotum, subcutaneous crepitation, and foul smell
D. surgical debridement often spares the testes
Answer : A

27. How should a proper routine urine specimen be collected?
A. early morning sample, after cleansing the perineum and meatus
B. by urethral catheterization under strict aseptic technique
C. a clean catch of midstream voided urine
D. by suprapubic aspiration, as urine is sterile
Answer : C

28. Using low-dose prophylactic or suppressive antimicrobials might be an option in treating the following type of prostatitis:
A. acute bacterial prostatitis presenting with abscess formation
B. recurrent or refractory chronic bacterial prostatitis
C. asymptomatic prostatitis with pyuria resistant to common antimicrobials
D. curiously, chronic inflammatory prostatitis could respond to low-dose suppressive antibiotic
Answer : B

29. What is the ideal antibiotic class for self-start therapy on treating recurrent cystitis in a 32 yrs. married woman?
A. aminopenicillins
B. fluoroquinolones
C. aminoglycosides
D. nitrofurantoins
Answer : B

30. What is true regarding contrast CT imaging for a renal abscess?
A. abscess appears as a low attenuation cystic cavity containing gas
B. renal parenchyma around the abscess cavity may show hypo enhancement in nephrogram phase
C. associated fascial and septal thickening are seen with obliteration of perinephric fat
D. all of the above
Answer : D

31. What is the most significant biological difference in women susceptibility to UTI?
A. adherence of bacteria to vaginal cells
B. vaginal dryness
C. O serogroup
D. vaginal pH
Answer : A

32. What is the most important pharmacokinetic property of a drug to cure UTI?
A. mode of administration
B. level in the serum
C. level in the urine
D. dosage
Answer : C

33. What is false concerning esinophilic cystitis?
A. probably due to antibody/antigen reaction
B. has no diagnostic findings on cystoscopy
C. has no specific medical therapy
D. on histology, Von Brunn`s nests appear invaginating the urothelium into the lamina propria
Answer : D

34. What is the best statement that describes the action of antiproliferative factor?
A. inhibits bladder epithelial cell proliferation
B. inhibits the bladder proliferative growth factors
C. stimulates the proliferation inhibitory factors
D. none of the above
Answer : A

35. Which treatment modality has NO proven efficacy in CP/CPPS?
A. selective nerve block
B. balloon dilation
C. botulinum A toxin injection
D. ESWL
Answer : B

36. What is false regarding the etiology and treatment of orchialgia syndrome?
A. small indirect inguinal hernia may irritate the genital branch of genitofemoral nerve causing orchialgia
B. might respond to a selective nerve block
C. the recommended treatment is orchiectomy with implantation of a testicular prosthesis
D. psychotherapy and stress management might alleviate the pain
Answer : C

37. What is (are) the complication(s) of sexually transmitted infections?
A. pelvic inflammatory disease
B. lymphogranuloma venereum
C. infertility
D. all of the above
Answer : D

38. Patients with bladder pain syndrome have:
A. a history of repeated urologic and/or gynecologic procedures
B. 10 fold higher incidence of childhood voiding problems
C. 4 fold higher incidence of anxiety-depression syndrome
D. 6 fold higher incidence of psychosomatic disorders
Answer : B

39. Which of the following conditions is NOT associated with interstitial cystitis?
A. inflammatory bowel disease
B. rheumatoid arthritis
C. systemic lupus erythematosus
D. fibromyalgia
Answer : B

40. Directed physiotherapy could be of value in treating what NIH type of prostatitis?
A. type II
B. type III-a
C. type III-b
D. type IV
Answer : C

41. What is true regarding chronic epididymitis symptomatology?
A. pain is dull aching in the scrotum, perineum, inner thighs, and lower abdomen
B. dysuria, frequency, and/or urgency
C. long-standing (> 6 weeks) history of scrotal pain, and tenderness
D. low grade fever, malaise, and urethral discharge
Answer : C

42. Screening for bacteriuria is mostly indicated for:
A. seniors house residents
B. ICU patients with indwelling urinary catheters
C. pregnant women
D. neurogenic bladder patients on CIC
Answer : C

43. Which of the following factors increases the risk of UTI due to promotion of microbial colonization?
A. neurogenic bladder
B. the use of spermicide
C. urinary catheterization
D. fecal incontinence
Answer : B

44. No need for radiologic studies for recurrent UTI in:
A. children
B. the elderly
C. men
D. women
Answer : D

45. What is false regarding prostatic abscesses?
A. clinically, cannot be differentiated from acute bacterial prostatitis
B. medical management is often unsuccessful
C. it harbors prostate cancer in approximately 4.3% of cases
D. management include suprapubic urinary diversion
Answer : C

46. What is the commonest cause of relapsing UTI in males?
A. chronic epididymitis
B. epididymo-orchitis
C. chronic bacterial prostatitis
D. venereal cysto-urethritis
Answer : C

47. What is false concerning renal hydatid cysts?
A. might rupture into the collecting system causing (hydatiduria)and renal colic
B. are formed by the eggs of the tapeworm Echinococcus granulosus
C. most cysts are asymptomatic but might manifest as flank mass, dull pain, or hematuria
D. the most reliable diagnostic test uses partially purified hydatid arc 5 antigens in a double-diffusion test
Answer : B

48. What is true concerning scrotal abscesses?
A. could be a complication of chronic epididymitis and orchalgia
B. testicular torsion must be excluded
C. infected hair follicles and scrotal lacerations are predisposing factors
D. urethral discharge is not uncommon presentation
Answer : C

49. In males, HIV infection increases the incidence of the following genitourinary tumors:
A. testicular
B. renal
C. penile
D. all of the above
Answer : D

50. What is false concerning acute pyelonephritis?
A. CBC reveals leucocytosis with predominance of neutrophils
B. contrast CT reveals one or more focal wedge-like swollen regions of the kidney parenchyma, sparing the cortex, and demonstrating reduced enhancement rim sign
C. in children, recurrent acute pyelonephritis might lead to renal scarring
D. in pregnancy, recurrent acute pyelonephritis might lead to preterm labor
Answer : B