Urologic infections and inflammations 1000+ MCQ with answer for LIC ADO

1. What is true concerning HIV infection?
A. HIV is a retrovirus that infects B-cells and dendritic cells
B. circumcised men are at lower risk for HIV infection
C. HPV infection increases the risk for cancers in HIV patients by 6.3 times
D. plasma HIV RNA load is a predictor of disease remission
Answer : B

2. What is false concerning inverted papilloma of the bladder?
A. It is an endophytic tumor of the transitional urothelium
B. harbors p53 gene mutations
C. presents with hematuria, dysuria, and irritative voiding
D. the lesion requires transurethral resection
Answer : B

3. Under which surgical wound classification, does diagnostic cystoscopy under sterile technique fit?
A. dirty - infected
B. contaminated
C. clean - contaminated
D. clean
Answer : C

4. Histologically, the pathognomonic finding of Fournier gangrene include:
A. necrosis of the superficial and deep fascial planes
B. fibrinoid thrombosis of the nutrient arterioles
C. polymorphonuclear cell infiltration
D. all of the above
Answer : D

5. What is the most significant complication of papillary necrosis?
A. ureteral obstruction
B. proteinuria
C. stone formation
D. renal scarring
Answer : A

6. What condition does NOT present as an acute loin pain with fever and marked flank tenderness?
A. ascending UTI causing acute lobar nephronia
B. acute pyelonephritis in a transplanted kidney
C. infected renal subcapsular hematoma
D. perinephric abscess causing septicemia
Answer : B

7. Screening for bacteriuria is mostly indicated for:
A. seniors house residents
B. ICU patients with indwelling urinary catheters
C. pregnant women
D. neurogenic bladder patients on CIC
Answer : C

8. As per NIH classification of prostatitis, which type requires no treatment?
A. type I
B. type II
C. type III
D. type IV
Answer : D

9. What is true regarding Xanthogranulomatous Pyelonephritis?
A. CT shows the characteristic bear paw sign
B. it is an infected, obstructed, poorly functioning kidney containing stones
C. nephrectomy is the treatment
D. all of the above
Answer : D

10. What is false concerning sepsis syndrome?
A. poor tissue perfusion manifests as hyperlactemia and decreased capillary refill
B. acute oliguria indicates an organ dysfunction and circulatory collapse
C. septic shock is an extreme form of sepsis when hypotension persists despite adequate fluid resuscitation
D. hypotension is a sign of hyperdynamic circulation at an early septic shock
Answer : D

11. What is false concerning antiretroviral medications?
A. multiple antiretroviral drugs can be combined into a single pill
B. might cause radiolucent renal stones
C. can lead to a significant rise in the serum level of PDE5 inhibitors, if taken simultaneously
D. have the advantage of structured treatment interruptions (drug holidays)
Answer : D

12. What is false concerning epididymitis?
A. should be distinguished from testicular torsion in the emergency setting
B. viral epididymitis is commoner in the elderly
C. chronic epididymitis might complicate BPH
D. chronic epididymitis might require epididymectomy
Answer : B

13. Management of acute epididymo-orchitis in hospitalized patients includes all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. scrotal support and elevation
B. ice packs
C. non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents
D. urethral catheterization
Answer : D

14. What is false concerning esinophilic cystitis?
A. probably due to antibody/antigen reaction
B. has no diagnostic findings on cystoscopy
C. has no specific medical therapy
D. on histology, Von Brunn`s nests appear invaginating the urothelium into the lamina propria
Answer : D

15. What is true regarding acute pyelonephritis?
A. a cause of obstruction should be sought
B. PCN is placed to decompress the kidney and preserve renal function
C. blood-born staphylococci are commoner than ascending E.coli infections
D. blood and urine cultures must dictate the antibiotic choice from day 1
Answer : A

16. What is the commonest intra-scrotal pathology in AIDS patients?
A. beaded vas deferens
B. testicular micrilithiasis
C. testicular atrophy
D. epididymal granuloma
Answer : C

17. Which of the following factors increases the risk of UTI due to promotion of microbial colonization?
A. neurogenic bladder
B. the use of spermicide
C. urinary catheterization
D. fecal incontinence
Answer : B

18. In which segmented voided bladder (VB) specimen, the diagnosis of chronic prostatitis is confirmed?
A. VB1 and VB3
B. prostatic secretions and the VB3
C. prostatic secretions and the VB2
D. prostatic secretions and the VB1
Answer : B

19. What is false concerning corpora amylacea of the prostate?
A. are premalignant, and found in 1-6% of postate biopsies
B. are small hyaline masses of unknown significance found in the prostate gland
C. they are degenerate cells or thickened secretions in the prostate ducts
D. might appear as prostate calcifications on X-ray KUB
Answer : A

20. What condition causes sterile pyuria?
A. urethral infection with trichomonas vaginalis
B. bladder infection with adenovirus
C. Kawasakis disease
D. all of the above
Answer : D

21. What is true concerning the treatment of catheter associated bacteriuria?
A. should be flushed frequently, but no antibiotic is advised
B. should be treated if febrile UTI has developed
C. should be treated only if urine culture is positive
D. should be treated once the catheter is removed
Answer : B

22. What is essential on diagnosing bladder pain syndrome BPS/IC?
A. sterile pyuria on 3 consecutive cultures
B. the presence of glomerulations and/or Hunner`s ulcer on endoscopy
C. pain and discomfort related to the bladder
D. urgency and frequency with no documented infection
Answer : C

23. What type of human Herpes virus is implicated in all forms of Kaposi sarcoma?
A. 2
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8
Answer : D

24. What is (are) the complication(s) of sexually transmitted infections?
A. pelvic inflammatory disease
B. lymphogranuloma venereum
C. infertility
D. all of the above
Answer : D

25. What is false concerning Xanthogranulomatous Pyelonephritis?
A. is most commonly associated with Proteus or E. coli infection
B. is characterized by lipid-laden foamy macrophages
C. the overall prognosis is poor
D. it might involve adjacent structures or organs
Answer : C

26. What is false concerning post UTI renal scarring in pediatrics?
A. the incidence of scarring following a single episode of febrile UTI is 4.5%
B. intra-renal reflux is common in convex papillae
C. scarring and chronic pyelonephritis lead to hypertension in 10-20%
D. scarring is best detected and followed up by DMSA
Answer : B

27. What is the preferred antimicrobial prophylaxis for transrectal prostate biopsy?
A. aminoglycoside
B. fluoroquinolone
C. 2nd generation cephalosporin
D. doxycycline
Answer : B

28. What is NOT a complication of mumps orchitis?
A. infertility
B. hypogonadotropic hypogonadism
C. non seminomatous germ cell tumor
D. chronic orchalgia
Answer : C

29. What type of scrotal ulcers is painless, punched out, with yellowish grey floor?
A. tuberculous ulcer
B. malignant ulcer
C. gummatous ulcers
D. traumatic ulcer
Answer : C

30. What kind of cystitis does NOT progress to malignancy?
A. foreign-body cystitis due to vesical calculi
B. Von Brunn`s nests of cystitis cystica and cystitis glandularis
C. schistosomiasis cystitis
D. inverted papilloma of the bladder
Answer : B

31. What is false regarding pediatric renal parenchyma scarring?
A. chronic pyelonephritis and HTN lead to ESRD in 10% of the cases
B. neonatal symptoms of UTI are vague and non-specific, that delay the diagnosis and end in more scarring
C. despite adequate treatment, scarring continues after an attack of pyelonephritis as a chronic immune reaction against renal tubules
D. neonates have low intrarenal pelvic pressure, that predisposes to ascending infections
Answer : D

32. What factor(s) increase(s) the risk of bacterial colonization in the prostate?
A. acute epididymitis
B. indwelling urethral catheters
C. transurethral surgery
D. all of the above
Answer : D

33. What is false concerning emphysematous cystitis?
A. the hallmark in the diagnosis is the cystoscopic findings
B. risk factors include transplant recipients
C. CT shows intramural and/or intraluminal gas in the bladder
D. requires surgical debridement and probably cystectomy
Answer : A

34. Which treatment modality has NO proven efficacy in CP/CPPS?
A. selective nerve block
B. balloon dilation
C. botulinum A toxin injection
D. ESWL
Answer : B

35. What host`s factors do NOT increase the risk of developing infections?
A. advanced age
B. anatomical anomalies
C. poor drug compliance
D. smoking
Answer : C

36. The virulence of uropathogenic E.coli depends on all the following,
EXCEPT:
A. P blood-group antigen
B. P fimbriae in descending infections
C. emolysins
D. Dr family of adhesins in ascending infections
Answer : B

37. What is false regarding viral cystitis?
A. in pediatrics, adenovirus types 11 and 21 could result in hemorrhagic cystitis
B. immunosuppressed children are especially susceptible to Cytomegalovirus and Adenoviruses 7, 21, and 35
C. in pediatrics, acute viral cystitis might present as acute retention of urine
D. classically, treatment should be culture-specific
Answer : D

38. What is the least important measure in indwelling catheter care?
A. cleansing the urethral meatus with aseptic agent
B. careful aseptic insertion of the catheter
C. mainteance of a closed drainage system
D. maintaining a dependant drainage system
Answer : A

39. All of the following etiologies for interstitial cystitis have been theorized, EXCEPT:
A. allergic, type I hypersensitivity response
B. pelvic floor dysfunction
C. up-regulation of histaminergic and muscarinic neuro-receptors
D. neural hypersensitivity
Answer : A

40. What is the mortality rate of emphysematous pyelonephritis?
A. 43%
B. 53%
C. 63%
D. 73%
Answer : A

41. Which of the following does NOT cause unresolved bacteriuria?
A. giant staghorn stone
B. perivesical abscess with fistula to the bladder
C. bacterial resistance
D. self-inflicted infection
Answer : B

42. What is false concerning Brucellosis epididymitis?
A. commonly presents with scrotal pain, swelling, fever, and leucocytosis
B. epididymo-orchitis is the most frequent genitourinary complication of brucellosis
C. epididymo-orchitis occurs in 10-15% of male patients with brucellosis
D. treatment includes doxycycline and rifampicin for 6-8 weeks
Answer : A

43. What is true concerning malakoplakia?
A. is a premalignant condition
B. it can be locally aggressive and invades surrounding structures causing bone erosions
C. kidneys are the most commonly affected organs
D. characterized by rounded intracellular inclusions (owls-eyes) in large esinophilic histocytes
Answer : B

44. What is true regarding genitourinary TB?
A. commonly, TB enters the urinary tract via intravesical instillation of attenuated live BCG to treat bladder cancer
B. CT urography may show infundibular stricture with or without hydrocalicosis
C. renal ultrasonography reveals calyceal erosions moth-eaten calyx
D. TB of the vas appears, clinically, as a thin hard strictured tube
Answer : B

45. Which of the following is NOT a first-choice antimicrobial agent for uncomplicated acute cystitis in women?
A. nitrofurantoin monohydrate/macrocrystals
B. trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
C. ampicillin
D. fosfomycin
Answer : C

46. What is the average age of onset of BPS/IC patients?
A. 30
B. 40
C. 50
D. 60
Answer : B

47. What could NOT cause recurrent UTI in a 25 yrs. woman?
A. bladder neck suspension surgery
B. chronic constipation
C. poor genital hygiene
D. contraceptive diaphragm
Answer : A

48. What is (are) the prominent clinical finding(s) in the diagnosis of acute pyelonephritis?
A. fever, chills, abdominal pain
B. costovertibral angle tenderness
C. hypogastric and loin pain
D. flank pain, dysuria
Answer : B

49. What is the proper term to describe high bacterial count in urine without pus?
A. asymptomatic bacteriuria
B. sterile pyouria
C. bacterial colonization
D. unresolved bacteriuria
Answer : C

50. Which of the following is NOT a treatment option for BPS/IC?
A. substitution cystoplasty and continent diversion
B. fulguration of a Hunner`s ulcer or hydrodistention
C. intravesical installation of silver nitrate or dimethyl sulfoxide
D. low dose external beam irradiation
Answer : D