Urology Basic Science MCQ Solved Paper for RBI Grade B officer

1. What is false concerning coagulase splitting bacteria (Griess) test?
A. it is a reduction reaction that converts nitrate to nitrite
B. nitrazine reagent papers are used to elicit the reaction
C. it is false negative in diluted urine, on taking vitamin C, and in gram +ve bacteria
D. the reaction takes 4 minutes to complete
Answer : D

2. Which of the following conditions could happen in chronic pancreatitis and malabsorption syndrome with steatorrhea?
A. hyperoxaluria
B. hypercalciuria
C. hyperuricosuria
D. hyperphosphateuria
Answer : A

3. Which action of thigh muscles could be impaired if the obturator nerve was injured during endoscopic resection of bladder tumors?
A. adduction
B. abduction
C. flexion
D. extension
Answer : A

4. What is the most likely cause of large scrotal hematoma in neonates?
A. clotting factor VIII deficiency
B. clotting factor IX deficiency
C. breech delivery
D. scrotal cavernous haemangioma
Answer : C

5. Which statement is false concerning capacitation of spermatozoa?
A. occurs after acrosome reaction
B. entails removal of a glycoprotein layer
C. it is a biochemical event of sperm maturation
D. changes occur in the female genital tract
Answer : A

6. Which of the following mediates calcium reabsorption in the distal renal tubules?
A. aldosterone
B. hypocalcemia
C. parathyroid hormone
D. vitamin D
Answer : C

7. Which agent should be avoided during living-related donor nephrectomy?
A. ice slush
B. heparin
C. norepinephrine
D. methylene blue
Answer : C

8. From where does the main parasympathetic efferent innervation to the pelvic plexus arise?
A. S1
B. S2-S4
C. T11-L2
D. L3-S1
Answer : B

9. What vessels are located in the prostate neurovascular bundle?
A. Watson plexus
B. capsular arteries and veins
C. inferior vesical and midrectal vessels
D. Santorini plexus
Answer : B

10. Which drug does NOT result in urinary retention?
A. terazosin, antihypertensive
B. benzodiazepines, psychotropic medicine
C. levodopa, anti-Parkinsonism medicine
D. brimonidine, glaucoma eye drops
Answer : A

11. Which statement regarding post-obstructive diuresis (POD) is false?
A. urine production exceeding 200 ml/hr for 2 consecutive hours or producing greater than 3 L of urine in 24 hours is diagnostic of POD
B. pathologic POD can be exacerbated by excessive fluid replacement
C. the replacement fluid choice is ringer lactate
D. fluid resuscitation depends on the degree of dehydration
Answer : C

12. At which type of renal tubular acidosis (RTA), typically, potassium levels increase?
A. type 1
B. type 2
C. type 3
D. type 4
Answer : D

13. What is true regarding hematospermia?
A. should be investigated thoroughly like hematuria
B. is rarely associated with significant urologic pathology
C. carries a risk of infertility
D. mandates testicular biopsy
Answer : B

14. What is false concerning fosfomycin antibiotic?
A. has a limited cross-resistance with most common antibacterial agents
B. causes injection site reactions
C. is active against most uropathogens
D. is effective as a single-dose agent
Answer : B

15. In which condition can NOT creatinine level be 1200 mg/dL?
A. an aspirate of pelvic urinoma
B. in untreated end-stage renal failure disease
C. a sample from a wound drain after pyeloplasty
D. a sample from suprapubic catheter
Answer : B

16. How many days does spermatogenesis take in the man?
A. 16
B. 32
C. 64
D. 90
Answer : C

17. Which agent is most likely to cause hemorrhagic cystitis?
A. cisplatin
B. ifosfamide
C. phosphomycin
D. amphotericin B
Answer : B

18. What is the nature of the prostate-specific antigen?
A. protease
B. lyase
C. carboxylase
D. hydrolase
Answer : A

19. Which of the following is NOT a component of the normal semen?
A. zinc
B. fructose
C. prostate-specific antigen
D. alkaline phosphatase
Answer : D

20. What is false about purple urine bag syndrome?
A. occurs due to the interaction between the chemical components of the urine and polyvinyl chloride material in the urine bag
B. it is commonly symptomless
C. more common in female nursing home residents
D. commonly implicated bacteria are K. pneumoniae, P. mirabilis, E. coli
Answer : A

21. Which group(s) of lymph nodes drain(s) the glans penis?
A. internal and external iliac
B. superficial inguinal
C. deep inguinal
D. superficial and deep inguinal
Answer : A

22. Which of the prostate medications could result in retrograde ejaculation?
A. tamsulosin
B. doxazosin
C. dutasteride
D. alfuzosin
Answer : A

23. Where is the centre of reflex erection located at?
A. the brain cortex
B. the sacral cord
C. the lumbar cord
D. the hypothalamus
Answer : B

24. Which of the following is false regarding zona glomeruloza?
A. the most superficial layer of the adrenal cortex
B. responses to increased potassium levels, renin or decreased renal blood flow
C. it causes pheochromocytoma
D. secretes aldosterone
Answer : C

25. What could render red urine workup, false positive for hematuria?
A. dehydration
B. myoglobinuria
C. high doses of vitamin C
D. all of the above
Answer : D

26. What are the first and second most common zones from where prostate cancers arise?
A. central then transitional
B. peripheral then transitional
C. peripheral then central
D. transitional then central
Answer : B

27. The mature genitourinary system develops from all of the following embryonic sources, EXCEPT:
A. intermediate mesoderm
B. mesothelium of celomic cavity
C. endoderm of the urogenital sinus
D. somatic ectoderm
Answer : D

28. What causes ureteral dilation during pregnancy is:
A. mechanical compression by the gravid uterus
B. physiological increase urine flow during pregnancy
C. elevated levels of progesterone
D. reflex inhibition of ureteral contractions
Answer : A

29. Which lab results indicate poor prognosis of male infertility?
A. azoospermia; normal FSH; increase LH
B. azoospermia; decrease FSH; normal LH
C. oligospermia; increase FSH; normal LH
D. oligospermia; normal FSH; decrease LH
Answer : C

30. Which disease is described best by the following manifestations: grand mal epilepsy, mental retardation, hypertension, angiomyolipoma, adenoma sebaceum, bilateral enlarged kidneys, and normal renal function?
A. autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease
B. von Hippel-Lindau disease
C. tuberous sclerosis
D. Sturge-Webber syndrome
Answer : C

31. Which of the following process(es) is (are) reversible?
A. 5?-reductase enzyme reduces testosterone to DHT
B. aromatase enzyme reduces testosterone to estrogen
C. PSA molecule binds to ?1-antichymotrypsin and ?2-macroglobulin
D. none of the above
Answer : D

32. What helps in treating Candida albicans cystitis is:
A. sodium bicarbonate
B. phyto soya
C. ascorbic acid
D. sol palmetto
Answer : A

33. By which of the following structures, do the fused lower poles of hoarseshoe kidneys get trapped during embryologic ascent?
A. inferior mesenteric artery
B. superior mesenteric artery
C. celiac artery
D. common iliac artery
Answer : A

34. At which week of gestation do the primordial germ cells migrate to form the genital ridges?
A. third
B. fourth
C. fifth
D. seventh
Answer : C

35. Which layer lies between the superficial and deep inguinal lymph nodes?
A. Scarpa`s fascia
B. fascia lata
C. Dartos fascia
D. Camper`s fascia
Answer : B

36. Which of the following contributes second to the seminal fluid by volume?
A. seminal vesicles
B. the prostate
C. testes
D. bulbourethral glands
Answer : B

37. When should a 70 yrs. man with 40 ml prostate volume, and total PSA of 2.0 ng/ml, go for a prostate biopsy?
A. if PSA reading had exceeded 2.7 ng/ml over 12 months
B. if free PSA reading was less than 0.4 ng/ml
C. if total PSA reading was greater than 8 ng/ml
D. any of the above
Answer : D

38. The manifestations of autonomic dysreflexia include:
A. hypotension and tachycardia
B. hypotension and bradycardia
C. hypertension and tachycardia
D. hypertension and bradycardia
Answer : D

39. What is false about indinavir sulfate stones?
A. intratubular crystal formation might occur
B. CT cannot reliably confirm the presence of indinavir calculi
C. stone formation is demonstrated in 80% of patients taking the medication
D. is a protease inhibitor with poor solubility and significant urinary excretion
Answer : C

40. How can hyperuricosuria cause calcium oxalate calculi?
A. by increasing oxalate absorption
B. by heterogeneous nucleation
C. by inducing hyperoxaluria
D. by reducing urate crystals saturation
Answer : B

41. Which anomaly might accompany horseshoe kidneys?
A. ureteropelvic junction obstruction
B. ureterocele
C. ureteral reflux
D. ureteral atresia
Answer : A

42. What is false concerning the urinary bladder anatomy?
A. as it distends, it peels off the peritoneum from the abdominal wall
B. the interueteric ridge is located between the 2 ureteric orifices and the uvula vesicae
C. Waldeyer`s sheath covers only the distal ureter and forms the deep trigone
D. in adults, it is percussible over the abdomen when contains at least 150 ml
Answer : B

43. Which antibiotic is the best to treat soft tissue infection with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) in hospitalized patients?
A. vancomycin
B. cefotaxime
C. penicillin G
D. tobramycin
Answer : A

44. At what month of intra-uterine life do testes descend into the scrotum with the aid of the intra-abdominal pressure and the gubernacula?
A. sixth
B. seventh
C. eighth
D. ninth
Answer : B

45. What is the approximated bladder capacity of an 8 yrs. girl?
A. 150 ml
B. 200 ml
C. 250 ml
D. 300 ml
Answer : D

46. Which period of intrauterine life does the process of organ formation (organogenesis) take place?
A. 9 12 weeks
B. 12 15 weeks
C. 15 18 weeks
D. 18 21 weeks
Answer : A

47. Which of the following does NOT affect serum creatinine?
A. gender
B. age
C. obstructing stone at left lower ureter
D. rhabdomyolysis
Answer : C

48. What is the half-life of ?-HCG?
A. 5 7 days
B. 24 36 hours
C. 2 3 days
D. 12 24 hours
Answer : B

49. What is the most frequent anomaly associated with multicystic renal dysplasia?
A. ureteral atresia
B. vesicoureteral reflux
C. ureteropelvic junction obstruction
D. ureteral duplication
Answer : A

50. Which innervations mediate detumescence?
A. cavernous nerves
B. dorsal nerves of the penis
C. sympathetic nervous system
D. parasympathetic nervous system
Answer : C