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4

From where does the main parasympathetic efferent innervation to the pelvic plexus arise?

A. S1

B. S2-S4

C. T11-L2

D. L3-S1

Correct Answer :

B. S2-S4


the autonomic innervation of the pelvic organs arises from the pelvic plexus of (S2 to S4).

Related Questions

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4

The majority of circulating testosterone is:

A. bound to sex hormone-binding globulin

B. free

C. bound to α1-antichymotrypsin

D. bound to albumin

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4

Which type of renal stone crystals is known as coffin lid?

A. oxalate

B. struvite

C. urate

D. cystine

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4

What vessels are located in the prostate neurovascular bundle?

A. Watson plexus

B. capsular arteries and veins

C. inferior vesical and midrectal vessels

D. Santorini plexus

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4

Which of the following is NOT a sex accessory tissue?

A. the prostate gland

B. seminal vesicles

C. epididymi

D. bulbourethral glands

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4

Which lab results indicate poor prognosis of male infertility?

A. azoospermia; normal FSH; increase LH

B. azoospermia; decrease FSH; normal LH

C. oligospermia; increase FSH; normal LH

D. oligospermia; normal FSH; decrease LH

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4

Which microbe causes red diaper syndrome?

A. Serratia marcescens

B. Streptococcus pyogenes

C. Clostridium difficile

D. Staphylococcus saprophyticus

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4

Renal blood flow is autoregulated by:

A. sympathetic nervous system

B. parasympathetic nervous system

C. urinary output

D. afferent arteriolar resistance

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4

What is false concerning the urinary bladder anatomy?

A. as it distends, it peels off the peritoneum from the abdominal wall

B. the interureteric ridge is located between the 2 ureteric orifices and the uvula vesicae

C. Waldeyer`s sheath covers only the distal ureter and forms the deep trigone

D. in adults, it is percussible over the abdomen when contains at least 150 ml

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4

Between which 2 fascial planes does the prostatic neurovascular bundle travel?

A. prostatic fascia and levator fascia

B. prostate capsule and prostatic fascia

C. Denonvilliers fascia and prostate capsule

D. Denonvilliers fascia and endopelvic fascia

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4

Which of the following is NOT related to von Hippel-Lindau disease?

A. retinal hemangioblastoma

B. ureteral atresia

C. pheochromocytomas

D. multiple cysts in the pancreas and kidneys

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4

Which of the renal artery occlusive conditions, commonly, do NOT affect renal function?

A. intimal fibroplasia

B. medial fibroplasia

C. medial hyperplasia

D. serosal hyperplasia

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4

What is the appropriate intravenous maintenance fluid for a 16 kg girl?

A. 43 ml/hr of normal saline

B. 78 ml/hr of ¼ normal saline

C. 69 ml/hr of ½ normal saline

D. 54 ml/hr of ¼ normal saline

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4

The mature genitourinary system develops from all of the following embryonic sources, EXCEPT:

A. intermediate mesoderm

B. mesothelium of celomic cavity

C. endoderm of the urogenital sinus

D. somatic ectoderm

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4

What is the best initial therapy for hyponatremic dehydration?

A. administration of hypertonic saline

B. administration of crystalloid

C. administration of normal saline

D. administration of ringer lactate

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4

What is false concerning renal vasculature?

A. there are 4 surgical segments of the kidney, based on the segmental artery distribution

B. along the kidney convexity, there is an avascular plane

C. there are no collaterals between segmental arteries

D. in < 10%, the posterior branch is the first to branch off the renal artery

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4

By which of the following structures, do the fused lower poles of hoarseshoe kidneys get trapped during embryologic ascent?

A. inferior mesenteric artery

B. superior mesenteric artery

C. celiac artery

D. common iliac artery

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4

Which group(s) of lymph nodes drain(s) the glans penis?

A. internal and external iliac

B. superficial inguinal

C. deep inguinal

D. superficial and deep inguinal

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4

Which of the following conditions could result in white urine?

A. chyluria

B. bacteriuria

C. phosphaturia

D. all of the above

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4

On tracing the IVU dye down, in a dilated ureter, the dilation stops at a level then continues as a normal calibre ureter. What could the pathology be?

A. lower ureteral stricture

B. ureteral valve

C. modified Lich-Gregoire ureteral reimplantation

D. residual dilation of hydroureter

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4

Which of the following is false regarding Addison`s disease?

A. autoimmune disease in 70% of the cases

B. diagnosed by the rapid ACTH stimulation test

C. characterized by low serum sodium and high potassium

D. may coexist with hyperthyroidism and diabetes mellitus

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4

What is the function of PSA in semen?

A. increases semen volume

B. has antimicrobial activity

C. liquefies the seminal coagulum

D. decreases semen pH

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4

Which part of the male urethra is the narrowest?

A. the membranous

B. the bladder neck

C. the bulbous

D. the external urethral meatus

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4

Which antibiotic is the best to treat soft tissue infection with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) in hospitalized patients?

A. vancomycin

B. cefotaxime

C. penicillin G

D. tobramycin

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4

Adult size of bladder capacity is achieved at what age?

A. 5 6 yrs.

B. 7 8 yrs.

C. 9 10 yrs.

D. 11 12 yrs.

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4

Regarding multicystic kidneys, at what age does the compensatory renal growth end?

A. at birth

B. 2 years

C. at puberty

D. none of the above

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4

What causes Cushing`s disease is:

A. bilateral adrenal hyperplasia

B. pituitary over secretion of ACTH

C. exogenous administration of glucocorticoids

D. immune-mediated disease

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4

Which of the following does NOT affect serum creatinine?

A. gender

B. age

C. obstructing stone at left lower ureter

D. rhabdomyolysis

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4

What are the first and second most common zones from where prostate cancers arise?

A. central then transitional

B. peripheral then transitional

C. peripheral then central

D. transitional then central

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4

Bacterial resistance to antibiotics may occur because of:

A. inherited chromosomal-mediated resistance

B. acquired chromosomal-mediated resistance

C. extrachromosomal-mediated resistance

D. all of the above

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4

The manifestations of autonomic dysreflexia include:

A. hypotension and tachycardia

B. hypotension and bradycardia

C. hypertension and tachycardia

D. hypertension and bradycardia