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Topic: Seizure
Subject: Medicine
A 75-year-old male is brought to your office 1 month after a stroke that involved the left anterior cerebral artery, manifested by leg weakness, initial incontinence, and slowness in mentation. He experienced seizure activity on the second day after his stroke, but this was controlled by phenytoin (Dilantin). He has improved significantly and is now ambulatory. His family states that he now has episodic confusion, sleepiness, and clumsiness, which is preceded by paresthesias and dizziness, although no tonicclonic activity has been noted. He remains very drowsy for several hours after these episodes. He was wearing a cardiac monitor during one episode, but it showed nothing remarkable. His phenytoin level is therapeutic, and a CBC, metabolic profile, and magnesium level are all normal.
Which one of the following would be the most appropriate next step?

A. Discontinue the phenytoin

B. Add phenobarbital to the phenytoin

C. Begin bupropion (Wellbutrin)

D. Begin lamotrigine (Lamictal)

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