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4

What are the expected findings on urinalysis in patients with acute renal colic?

A. blood cells more than pus cells

B. pus cells if infection was superadded

C. crystals might appear

D. all of the above

Correct Answer :

A. blood cells more than pus cells


all of the aforementioned findings are expected but not necessarily found in renal colic patients.

Related Questions

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4

What is the favorable stone characteristic for ESWL treatment?

A. 1000 - 1300 HU density

B. 5 - 10 mm diameter

C. lower calyx location

D. mid ureteral location

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4

What does nephrocalcin do?

A. dissolves cystine stones

B. enhances nephrocalcinosis process over old scared areas

C. inhibits Ca.oxalate aggregation and crystallization

D. plays a secondary role in metastatic calcification process

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4

In what kind of renal stones do antibiotics help most?

A. indinavir

B. magnesium ammonium phosphate

C. xanthine

D. matrix

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4

What is false concerning the use of antibiotics in stone patients?

A. they are mandatory when urine shows ≥ 10 WBCs/hpf in symptomatic patients

B. they aim at treating pyonephrosis and urosepsis

C. they should cover Escherichia coli and Staphylococcus, Enterobacter, Proteus, and Klebsiella species

D. All of the above

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4

What is false regarding hypomagnesuric calcium nephrolithiasis?

A. it is characterized by low urinary magnesium and citrate

B. magnesium increases renal tubular citrate resorption

C. diarrheal is a remarkable side effect of magnesium therapy

D. potassium-magnesium preparations might restore urinary magnesium and citrate levels

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4

What is (are) the indication(s) of ureteral stenting before ESWL?

A. stones in a solitary kidney

B. ureteral stones causing bilateral obstructions

C. a kidney stone of ≥ 2.5 cm in size

D. all of the above

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4

As per the fixed particle theory of stone formation:

A. the initial step is papillary plaque formation

B. crystals formation occurs inside the nephron

C. tubular precipitates form harmless crystalluria

D. the attraction of organic compounds and activation crystallization is regulated by osteopontin

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4

What metabolic disturbances could result from renal tubular acidosis type I?

A. hypercalciuria and hypocitraturia

B. hypercalciuria and hypercitraturia

C. hypocalciuria and hypocitraturia

D. hypocalciuria and hypercitraturia

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4

What is (are) true concerning ESWL?

A. a stone is fragmented when the force of the shockwaves overcomes the tensile strength of the stone

B. fragmentation occurs as a result of compressive and tensile forces, erosion, shearing, spalling, and cavitation

C. the generation of compressive and tensile forces and cavitation are thought to be the most important

D. all of the above

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4

What is the principal defect in renal hypercalciuria?

A. impaired renal tubular calcium reabsorption

B. excessive glomerular leak of calcium

C. deficiency of the enzyme xanthine oxidase

D. hypercalcemia

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4

What is true regarding DJ ureteral stents?

A. can be placed through perc. nephrostomy

B. might slip out, especially in females

C. usually radiopaque

D. all of the above

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4

What is false concerning urethral stones?

A. stones at posterior urethra could be pushed back to the bladder

B. stones at anterior urethra have to undergo a trial of milking out, using copious intra-urethral xylocaine gel

C. often respond to a two-week course of tamsulosin

D. respond to Holmium laser treatment

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4

Worldwide, the commonest type of urinary stones is:

A. calcium monohydrate

B. calcium oxalate

C. ammonium urate

D. none of the above

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4

What situation carries lower risk for lung injury during supracostal upper pole access for PCNL?

A. placing the patient in anti-Trendelenburg position

B. making the puncture under local anesthesia

C. injection Co2 gas to create a safety space under the diaphragm before puncturing

D. making the puncture during full expiration

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4

What could high level of sulfate in 24-hr. urine collection mean?

A. dissolving homogenous nucleation

B. high tendency to form cystine sulfate stones

C. indicates the amount of dietary protein

D. post ESWL therapy

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4

What is the most common organism that might complicate PCNL?

A. Proteus mirabilis

B. E. coli

C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

D. Staphylococcus epidermidis

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4

What is the treatment of choice for a 15 mm stone in a mid calyceal diverticulum?

A. ESWL

B. PCNL with fulguration of the diverticulum

C. ureteroscopy with fulguration of the diverticulum

D. pyelolithotomy with diverticulectomy

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4

What is false concerning preputial stones?

A. form due to inspissated smegma

B. form due to stasis of urinary salts

C. cause inguinal lymphadenopathy

D. often associated with phimosis in uncircumcised males

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4

What is false concerning neonatal nephrolithiasis?

A. frequently caused by loop diuretics

B. stones are often radiolucent

C. may be reversed by the use of thiazides

D. low calcium-to-creatinine ratio predicts stones resolution

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4

When urine reaches a high tendency to form stones, the situation is called:

A. lithogenic anion to cation ratio

B. Randall cut off

C. saturation index

D. solubility product

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4

What is false concerning primary bladder stones?

A. commonly occur in patients with senile prostatic enlargement

B. common in children exposed to low-protein, low-phosphate diet

C. rarely recur after treatment

D. respond to ESWL

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4

How can the effectiveness of ESWL treatment session be enhanced?

A. by ensuring optimal coupling of the patient to the lithotripter

B. by running the treatment at a slower rate (60 shocks/min)

C. by running the treatment with general anesthesia

D. by all of the above

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4

Which of the following is a relative contra-indication to ESWL?

A. renal insufficiency

B. active urinary tract infection

C. uncorrected bleeding disorder

D. third trimester pregnancy

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4

What stones are radiopaque on plain X-ray film?

A. 2,8 dihydroxyadenine stones

B. sulfa medications-induced stones

C. calcium oxalate stones

D. matrix stones

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4

What risk factor(s) promote(s) stone formation?

A. dehydration

B. metabolic disorders

C. congenital anomalies

D. all of the above

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4

Which of the following bacteria split urea?

A. Klebsiella pneumonia

B. Morganella morganii

C. Proteus mirabilis

D. all of the above

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4

What is false concerning cystine stones?

A. result from an inherited defect of renal tubular reabsorption of cysteine

B. characteristically, urate and cysteine stone are radiolucent

C. cysteine is a dibasic amino acid

D. on plain X-ray, cysteine stones exhibit ground-glass appearance

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4

What type of stones do laxative abusers might develop?

A. ammonium urate

B. sodium urate

C. calcium oxalate

D. calcium phosphate

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4

What could carry the least risk of colon injury during PCNL?

A. subcostal puncture performed during full expiration

B. previous open nephrolithotomy

C. access lateral to the posterior axillary line

D. horseshoe kidney

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4

Which of the following factors, positively, affect lower calyceal stone clearance after ESWL?

A. short and wide infundibulum

B. large lower-pole infundibulo-pelvic angle

C. the adjunct usage of PCNL

D. all of the above