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4

What is (are) true concerning IPSS questionnaire?

A. it focuses on last month`s symptoms

B. scores of moderate symptoms suggest surgical treatment if the patient`s quality of life was poor

C. it has been validated and translated to many languages

D. all of the above

Correct Answer :

D. all of the above


self-explanatory.

Related Questions

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4

Anticholinergic medications work best with BPH patients who have:

A. small prostate

B. mainly median lobe hypertrophy

C. history of urinary retention

D. mainly irritative symptoms

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4

What is false concerning the diagnosis of BPH?

A. IPSS cannot be used to establish the diagnosis of BPH/LUTS

B. prostate biopsy is essential in diagnosing BPH and excluding cancers

C. PSA and uroflowmetry help diagnose the condition

D. none of the above

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4

a. management of concomitant Hutch diverticulum

A. removing small bladder stones

B. better access to prostatic fossa

C. technically, easier trigonization

D. . When comparing retropubic to suprapubic prostatectomy for removing prostatic adenoma, the former has the advantage of:

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4

IPSS decreases after successful TURP because:

A. PSA decreases

B. the prostate size decreases

C. the complaints resolve

D. the Q.O.L improves

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4

c. each centimeter over the normal 2.5-cm prostate urethral length equates

A. an additional 15 g in prostate weight

B. each centimeter over the normal 1.5-cm prostate urethral length equates

C. an additional 5 g in prostate weight

D. . When comparing suprapubic to retropubic prostatectomy for removing prostatic adenoma, the former allows:

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4

What statement is true regarding post-void residual of urine (PVR)?

A. nearly all men have PVR of less than 12 ml

B. it predicts the outcome of surgical treatment

C. it correlates well with BPH/LUTS

D. it is diagnostic for bladder outlet obstruction

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4

as adjuncts therapy in BPH cases?

A. men with storage symptoms

B. men with ED

C. failed combination of α-adrenergic blocker and 5α-reductase inhibitor

D. a & b

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4

What is false concerning BPH and androgenic hormones?

A. the most potent androgenic hormones in BPH development is DHT

B. type-2 steroid 5 α-reductase, is most commonly found in the prostate

C. castrated individuals before puberty will not develop BPH

D. as a man ages, the number of androgen receptors in the prostate decreases

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4

BPH patients with severe irritative symptoms or microscopic hematuria should:

A. go for urine cytology testing

B. go for PSA testing

C. go for TRUS

D. use anticholinergic medication

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4

What drug prevents recurrent gross hematuria secondary to BPH?

A. enoxaparin

B. silodosin

C. finasteride

D. tolterodine

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4

What is false regarding BPH genetics?

A. BPH is an inheritable and progressive disease

B. familial BPH presents at an older age when compared to sporadic cases

C. approximately 90% of men in their 80s have histologic evidence of BPH

D. BPH tends to be more severe and progressive in black men when compared to whites

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4

TURP syndrome is more likely to occur when:

A. the irrigating fluid is at a pressure exceeding 10 mm Hg

B. the prostate volume is > 45 cc

C. the resection time is > 90 minutes

D. all of the above

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4

Smooth muscle tension in the prostate is mediated by which receptors?

A. α1-a

B. α1-b

C. α2-a

D. α2-b

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4

What is false regarding BPH symptomatology?

A. the size of the prostate correlates well to the degree of obstruction

B. a decrease of 3 points in IPSS is associated with a subjective perception of improvement

C. median lobe enlargement gives rise to serious obstructive symptoms

D. bladder trabeculation is not specific for an obstructing prostate

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4

In an 80 yrs. diabetic man on insulin for 35 yrs.; what would be the proper sequence of developing the following obstructing BPH/LUTS?

A. frequency, over-flow incontinence, straining, retention

B. straining, frequency, over-flow incontinence, retention

C. straining, frequency, retention, over-flow incontinence

D. frequency, straining, retention, over-flow incontinence

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4

What is true regarding mirabegron, the β3 agonist, in treating BPH?

A. achieves better results when combined with antimuscarinic

B. enhances detrusor contractility resulting in higher Q-max

C. enhance detrusor relaxation during bladder-filling phase

D. increases voiding pressure that poses risk on renal function

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4

What is false concerning bladder and prostate histology in BPH?

A. obstruction results in bladder smooth muscle hypertrophy and myofibroblasts deposition

B. BPH occurs chiefly in the transitional zone and periurethral tissues

C. BPH microscopical changes begin in early thirties

D. histologic findings of chronic prostatitis are common in BPH

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4

Which statement is false concerning transurethral microwave therapy (TUMT) for BPH treatment:

A. induces nerve degeneration in the prostate and tissue necrosis

B. frequently results in transient urinary retention

C. frequently leads to erectile dysfunction

D. the high-energy platform is superior to the low-energy with regard to clinical efficacy

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4

What is true concerning epithelial and stromal cells in BPH?

A. there is an increase in the number of epithelial and stromal cells

B. there is an increase in the size of epithelial and stromal cells

C. in BPH, epithelial to stromal cells ratio is 1:2

D. all of the above

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4

What is true regarding BPH and androgens?

A. as a man ages, the responsiveness of prostate cells to androgenic stimuli decreases

B. adrenal androgens have no role in BPH development

C. type-1 steroid 5 α-reductase is functionally active in the hair follicle

D. all of the above

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4

a. operation cost

A. smaller incisions with a shorter hospital stay

B. lower risk for blood transfusion

C. none of the above

D. . What is the first-line management of uncomplicated LUTS due to large prostate?

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4

What is false concerning the pathogenesis of BPH?

A. intra-prostatic levels of estrogen decrease in men with BPH

B. stimulation of the adrenergic nervous system results in a dynamic increase in prostatic urethral resistance

C. inflammation may play a role through cytokines to promote cell growth

D. hyperplasia occurs due to an imbalance between cell death and cell proliferation

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4

In men with LUTS, which of the following is NOT a compelling indication for upper urinary tract imaging?

A. urolithiasis

B. receiving chemotherapy

C. upper tract surgery

D. painless hematuria

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4

In men with obstructive BPH, what will NOT resolve after TURP?

A. bladder trabeculation

B. significant PVR

C. low peak flow rate

D. high IPSS

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4

What is the likelihood that PSA level in men with acute urinary retention due to urethral stricture will decrease after catheterization?

A. never

B. unlikely

C. likely

D. always

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4

What can NOT be assessed during DRE?

A. sacral cord integrity

B. pelvic hematoma

C. pelvic floor muscle tenderness

D. prostatic median lobe hypertrophy

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4

Prostatic nodules palpated on DRE might indicate:

A. tuberculous prostatitis

B. prostatic cancer

C. inspissated prostatic abscess

D. any of the above

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4

Open prostatectomy is preferred in treating BPH with:

A. sizable bladder stones

B. Hutch diverticulum

C. a suspicion of cancer

D. a & b

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4

To achieve better hemostasis in prostate laser surgery, what is the ideal wavelength that is easily absorbed by hemoglobin?

A. 532 nm

B. 694 nm

C. 755 nm

D. 1064 nm

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4

What class(es) of medications decrease(s) IPSS questionnaire points?

A. calcium channel blockers

B. antihistamines

C. antidepressants

D. cold medications containing pseudoephedrine