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What is the correct answer?

4

What is false concerning bladder and prostate histology in BPH?

A. obstruction results in bladder smooth muscle hypertrophy and myofibroblasts deposition

B. BPH occurs chiefly in the transitional zone and periurethral tissues

C. BPH microscopical changes begin in early thirties

D. histologic findings of chronic prostatitis are common in BPH

Correct Answer :

A. obstruction results in bladder smooth muscle hypertrophy and myofibroblasts deposition


obstruction results in bladder smooth muscle hypertrophy and collagen deposition.

Related Questions

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4

In men with LUTS, which of the following is NOT a compelling indication for upper urinary tract imaging?

A. urolithiasis

B. receiving chemotherapy

C. upper tract surgery

D. painless hematuria

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4

What is (are) true concerning IPSS questionnaire?

A. it focuses on last month`s symptoms

B. scores of moderate symptoms suggest surgical treatment if the patient`s quality of life was poor

C. it has been validated and translated to many languages

D. all of the above

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4

a. management of concomitant Hutch diverticulum

A. removing small bladder stones

B. better access to prostatic fossa

C. technically, easier trigonization

D. . When comparing retropubic to suprapubic prostatectomy for removing prostatic adenoma, the former has the advantage of:

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4

What is false concerning the diagnosis of BPH?

A. IPSS cannot be used to establish the diagnosis of BPH/LUTS

B. prostate biopsy is essential in diagnosing BPH and excluding cancers

C. PSA and uroflowmetry help diagnose the condition

D. none of the above

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4

On measuring the prostate volume during endoscopy:

A. each centimeter over the normal 2-cm prostate urethral length equates

B. an additional 12 g in prostate weight

C. each centimeter over the normal 2.5-cm prostate urethral length equates

D. an additional 10 g in prostate weight

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4

In BPH patients, follow up PSA is of value because:

A. it helps predict the response to 5α-reductase inhibitors

B. it monitors LUTS/BPH progression

C. BPH patients are at higher risk of developing prostate cancer

D. a & b

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4

What is false concerning TURP syndrome?

A. symptoms begin with a serum sodium of less than 120 mEq/L

B. the mortality is 2.7-5.8 %

C. manifestations rely on acute changes in the intravascular volume and plasma solute concentrations

D. the preferred height of irrigating fluid is 60 cm above the patient

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4

TURP syndrome is more likely to occur when:

A. the irrigating fluid is at a pressure exceeding 10 mm Hg

B. the prostate volume is > 45 cc

C. the resection time is > 90 minutes

D. all of the above

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4

Anticholinergic medications work best with BPH patients who have:

A. small prostate

B. mainly median lobe hypertrophy

C. history of urinary retention

D. mainly irritative symptoms

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4

Transurethral incision of the prostate (TUIP):

A. is only indicated in small prostates

B. complications are related to the amount of lost blood and removed chips

C. is a minimal procedure where no risk of rectal injury or retrograde ejaculation have been reported

D. it entails making 1 or 2 incisions along all prostate lobes except the apical

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4

What is false concerning needle ablation therapy of the prostate (TUNA)?

A. prostate sizes of up to 70 ml can be treated

B. not recommended in patients with metallic artificial hip

C. retreatment rates are lower than for TURP

D. can be performed in an office-based setting

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4

What is (are) the favorite criterion (criteria) to prescribe 5α- reductase inhibitors for BPH cases?

A. PSA > 1.5 ng/dL

B. prostate volume > 40 ml

C. IPSS > 19

D. a & b

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4

Preferably, what is the last part of the prostate to be removed while performing TURP?

A. bladder neck

B. apex

C. median lobe

D. para-collecular

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4

a. lesser chance of post-operative urethral stricture

A. milder postoperative hematuria

B. tension-free bladder closure

C. extra-peritoneal approach

D. . When comparing TURP to open prostatectomy for removing prostatic adenoma, the latter has the following advantages, EXCEPT:

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4

c. each centimeter over the normal 2.5-cm prostate urethral length equates

A. an additional 15 g in prostate weight

B. each centimeter over the normal 1.5-cm prostate urethral length equates

C. an additional 5 g in prostate weight

D. . When comparing suprapubic to retropubic prostatectomy for removing prostatic adenoma, the former allows:

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4

Which statement is false concerning transurethral microwave therapy (TUMT) for BPH treatment:

A. induces nerve degeneration in the prostate and tissue necrosis

B. frequently results in transient urinary retention

C. frequently leads to erectile dysfunction

D. the high-energy platform is superior to the low-energy with regard to clinical efficacy

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4

Which statement is false regarding laser enucleation of the Prostate (HoLEP)?

A. provides tissue preservation for pathological examination

B. treats any size of prostatic adenoma

C. follows anatomic planes to remove the prostate in lobes

D. urinary incontinence is a significant drawback after HoLEP

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4

Which statement best describes the natural history of BPH:

A. worsening of LUTS and BPH over time

B. patients die of other reasons before serious complications occur

C. physically, the space of prostatic fossa limits the gland enlargement

D. ultimately, the gland will degenerate and undergo apoptosis

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4

In men with obstructive BPH, what will NOT resolve after TURP?

A. bladder trabeculation

B. significant PVR

C. low peak flow rate

D. high IPSS

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4

BPH/LUTS patients when present with mild creatinine elevation, are advised to do:

A. total and free PSA

B. renal ultrasonography

C. creatinine clearance

D. uroflowmetry

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4

What class(es) of medications decrease(s) IPSS questionnaire points?

A. calcium channel blockers

B. antihistamines

C. antidepressants

D. cold medications containing pseudoephedrine

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4

What is false concerning IPSS questionnaire?

A. is specific for prostate symptom

B. is a seven-question, self-administered questionnaire that yields a total score that ranges from 0 to 35

C. a sum of 20 on IPSS scale is severe

D. it covers both voiding and storage symptomatology

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4

Open prostatectomy is preferred in treating BPH with:

A. sizable bladder stones

B. Hutch diverticulum

C. a suspicion of cancer

D. a & b

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4

a. α-adrenergic blocker

A. combination of α-adrenergic blocker and 5α-reductase inhibitor

B. watchful waiting

C. TURP

D. . What is the commonest cause of LUTS in men beyond middle age?

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4

Which drug reduces the incidence of prostate cancer by 23% with a small increase in high-grade tumor incidence?

A. cetrorelix

B. flutamide

C. dutasteride

D. zanoterone

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4

What can NOT be assessed during DRE?

A. sacral cord integrity

B. pelvic hematoma

C. pelvic floor muscle tenderness

D. prostatic median lobe hypertrophy

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4

a. small fibrous glands

A. the presence of prostate cancer

B. previous prostatectomy

C. all of the above

D. . Robot-assisted laparoscopic prostatectomy for prostatic adenoma has the following advantage over TURP:

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4

Which statement is false regarding TURP syndrome?

A. occurs because of absorption of non-sodium-containing irrigating fluid

B. occurs only on using unipolar TURP

C. results in brain edema due to dilutional hyponatremia

D. positioning the patient in anti-Trendelenburg helps prevent the syndrome

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4

What is (are) the indication(s) to prescribe α-adrenergic inhibitors for BPH patients?

A. peak flow rate of ≤ 12 mL/sec

B. prostate volume > 40 ml

C. PSA > 1.5 ng/dL

D. b & c

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4

The lowest re-treatment rate of BPH is for:

A. TUIP

B. TURP

C. HoLEP

D. HoLRP