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What is the correct answer?

4

What is false concerning Tc-99m DMSA?

A. diseases affecting the proximal convoluted tubules inhibit DMSA uptake

B. it is ideal to assess UPJ obstruction in adults

C. gentamicin and cisplatin inhibit the DMSA uptake

D. it allows better assessment of differential renal function

Correct Answer :

B. it is ideal to assess UPJ obstruction in adults


DMSA is an ideal agent for the assessment of renal cortex for scars and tumors.

Related Questions

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4

What is (are) the characteristic finding(s) of testicular torsion on color Doppler ultrasonography?

A. the classic blue dot sign

B. thick, short, edematous spermatic cord

C. absence of intratesticular blood flow

D. increased epididymal blood flow

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4

Which statement is false concerning plain KUB film?

A. reliable tool to exclude urinary calculi

B. calcifications at renal area might lead to the discovery of renal cancers

C. can detect soft tissues

D. fecoliths and phleboliths could be mistaken for calculi

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4

How does a full bladder appear on ultrasonography?

A. hyperechoic

B. hypoechoic

C. isoechoic

D. anechoic

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4

How does fluid appear on T2-weighted MR images?

A. dark

B. intermediate

C. bright

D. none of the above

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4

Which statement is true concerning renal ultrasonography?

A. end-stage renal failure kidneys look small and hypoechoic

B. it is more accurate on diagnosing cystic lesions than solid masses

C. it is able to detect tumors as small as 2 mm

D. cortical carbuncle might be mistaken for hydronephrosis

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4

Which of the following is NOT an indication of renal arteriography?

A. preparation for donor nephrectomy

B. advanced RCC in the right kidney

C. renal artery stenosis

D. oncocytoma in the left kidney

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4

Which of the following is NOT an indication of retrograde pyelography?

A. evaluation of probable ureteral obstruction

B. in conjunction with ureteroscopy

C. evaluation of hematuria

D. evaluation of probable ureterovesical reflux

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4

What should type II diabetic patients on metformin do when going for intravenous contrast urography to avoid biguanide lactic acidosis?

A. take urine acidifiers

B. withhold metformin the day before the study and restart 48 hrs. later

C. get premedicated by steroids and antihistamines

D. decrease metformin dose and turn to insulin

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4

What is correct concerning sound waves?

A. The higher the frequency, the deeper tissue penetration

B. The higher the frequency, the better the axial resolution

C. low-frequency transducers are of 6 to 10 MHz

D. the deeper tissue penetration, the better axial resolution

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4

Which of the following is an indication of VCUG?

A. repeated febrile UTI in children

B. evaluating a probable posterior urethral valve

C. a & b

D. none of the above

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4

In routine practice, when do urologists request plain skull X-ray?

A. advanced prostatic cancer

B. central diabetes insipidus

C. pituitary adenoma

D. a & c

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4

What nuclear medicine study can diagnose interstitial nephritis?

A. DTPA

B. DMSA

C. gallium-67

D. MAG-3

What is the correct answer?

4

Which radiological modality carries the highest radiation hazard?

A. nuclear medicine

B. ultrasonography

C. X-ray fluoroscopy

D. intravenous urography

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4

Regarding acute renal infections, what is the least diagnostic radionuclide study for detecting an inflammatory focus?

A. hippuran I-131

B. technetium-99m

C. gallium-67

D. indium-111labelled WBC

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4

On clinical examination, what accidental finding has NO connection to renal cancer?

A. unilateral hydrocele

B. bilateral varicocele

C. calcifications at the renal area on plain KUB film

D. painless hematuria

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4

What is the hallmark finding on plain KUB of bladder exstrophy?

A. malunion of lumbar and/or sacral vertebral bodies

B. pelvic bone diastasis

C. sacral agenesis

D. fracture of anterior pubic rami

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4

What is true concerning Tc-99m DTPA?

A. Its uptake by glomerular filtration is almost 100%

B. It helps evaluate cortical structure and morphology

C. It provides a static picture of kidneys when compared to MAG3

D. it binds to the sulfhydryl groups in proximal tubules resulting in much higher resolution pinhole SPECT imaging

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4

Using ultrasonography, which testicular lesion is described as a solid, round, homogeneous, low-reflectivity tumor mass, with no calcification?

A. seminoma

B. embryonal cell tumor

C. mixed germ cell tumor

D. epidermoid cyst

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4

What is the minimum estimate of GFR to take gadolinium-based contrast agents?

A. more than 30 mL/min/1.73 m2

B. more than 60 mL/min/1.73 m2

C. more than 90 mL/min/1.73 m2

D. none of the above

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4

What is the emergency treatment of intravenous contrast allergy?

A. epinephrine

B. atropine

C. hydrocortisone

D. antihistamine

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4

On staging left kidney RCC using enhanced CT, the radiologist must look for:

A. extension of the tumor to the diaphragm

B. extension of the tumor to the right atrium

C. the density of calcifications

D. the amount and bilaterality of cysts formation

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4

Which of the following is false concerning retrograde urethrogram?

A. coning at the bulbar urethra is normal

B. segmental narrowing at bulbar urethra is normal

C. multiple round filling defects could be air bubbles

D. indicated in urethral trauma cases

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4

Which of the following is NOT an indication of static cystography?

A. evaluating a probable bladder rupture

B. evaluating a probable colovesical or vesicovaginal fistulae

C. evaluating a probable intravesical pathology

D. evaluating a probable bladder diverticula

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4

Which condition could present as a filling defect in the bladder on IVU study?

A. blood clot

B. fibro-epithelial polyp

C. sloughed renal papilla

D. all of the above

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4

Which condition does NOT show a false positive result for hydronephrosis on ultrasonic examination?

A. hydrocalicosis

B. extrarenal pelvis

C. parapelvic cyst

D. class 2 Bosniak renal cyst

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4

To which class of Bosniak system of renal cysts does an oval renal parenchymal cyst of uniform water density filling, with attenuation of ≤ 20 HU, thin, non-calcified wall, and no contrast enhancement; belong to?

A. class 1

B. class 2

C. class 3

D. class 4

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4

Which condition tops the differential diagnoses list of CT picture of Xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis?

A. renal tuberculosis

B. renal abscess

C. renal cell carcinoma

D. angiomyolipoma

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4

What is false on comparing Tc-99m DTPA to Tc-99m MAG3?

A. DTPA provides better quality images with renal insufficiency

B. by giving captopril, MAG3 plasma clearance declines in hypertensive patients with renal artery stenosis but rises in those who do not have the disease

C. DTPA provides an excellent measurement of GFR

D. in pediatrics, MAG3 provides better quality images than DTPA

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4

Which statement is false regarding magnetic resonance urography (MRU)?

A. small non-obstructive calculi might be missed at MRU performed for the evaluation of hematuria

B. in pediatrics, performing a dynamic contrast-enhanced imaging helps in evaluating crossing vessels in the setting of UPJ obstruction

C. the success of static-fluid MR urography depends on the presence of fluid within the urinary system regardless of renal function

D. MRU at 3T, carries the risk of nephrogenic systemic fibrosis

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4

Which condition does NOT show a false negative result for hydronephrosis on ultrasonic examination?

A. forniceal rupture

B. drained renal pelvis

C. high urine output

D. acute obstruction