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Current Affairs January 2024

What is the correct answer?

4

What is the emergency treatment of intravenous contrast allergy?

A. epinephrine

B. atropine

C. hydrocortisone

D. antihistamine

Correct Answer :

A. epinephrine


intravenous 1 ml of epinephrine 1:10000 administered slowly.

Related Questions

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4

Regarding acute renal infections, what is the least diagnostic radionuclide study for detecting an inflammatory focus?

A. hippuran I-131

B. technetium-99m

C. gallium-67

D. indium-111labelled WBC

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4

Which of the following is NOT an indication of renal arteriography?

A. preparation for donor nephrectomy

B. advanced RCC in the right kidney

C. renal artery stenosis

D. oncocytoma in the left kidney

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4

Which statement is false concerning diuretic nuclear scintigraphy renogram?

A. an elimination T ½ < 10 minutes indicates obstructed system

B. the diuretic must be given at the maximum kidney activity

C. If ureteral stents are in place, the bladder catheter must be unclamped

D. 99mTc-MAG3 is the agent of choice to study differential renal function and obstruction

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4

What is the optimal time for viewing the renal parenchyma after injecting a contrast material during IVU study?

A. 0 minute

B. 5 minutes

C. 10 minutes

D. renal parenchyma does not appear on IVU

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4

Which statement is false concerning complications of left renal artery embolization?

A. embolizing the non-target artery might occur

B. severe pain at the renal area could occur

C. complications depend on the embolic agent

D. reactive left pulmonary edema

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4

What is false concerning ureteric jets?

A. obstruction of the upper urinary tract may increase renal pelvis pressure and delay or decrease pelvis peristaltic rates

B. measured by color Doppler flow mapping in transverse scans at the suprapubic region

C. patients with ureteral stents are the ideal

D. adequate hydration is necessary

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4

Which radiological modality carries the highest radiation hazard?

A. nuclear medicine

B. ultrasonography

C. X-ray fluoroscopy

D. intravenous urography

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4

What should type II diabetic patients on metformin do when going for intravenous contrast urography to avoid biguanide lactic acidosis?

A. take urine acidifiers

B. withhold metformin the day before the study and restart 48 hrs. later

C. get premedicated by steroids and antihistamines

D. decrease metformin dose and turn to insulin

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4

Ultrasonic waves, in nature, are:

A. mechanical waves

B. radar waves

C. microwaves

D. radio waves

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4

Which condition tops the differential diagnoses list of CT picture of Xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis?

A. renal tuberculosis

B. renal abscess

C. renal cell carcinoma

D. angiomyolipoma

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4

On clinical examination, what accidental finding has NO connection to renal cancer?

A. unilateral hydrocele

B. bilateral varicocele

C. calcifications at the renal area on plain KUB film

D. painless hematuria

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4

What is (are) the characteristic finding(s) of testicular torsion on color Doppler ultrasonography?

A. the classic blue dot sign

B. thick, short, edematous spermatic cord

C. absence of intratesticular blood flow

D. increased epididymal blood flow

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4

Which ultrasound mode is able to depict motion direction and flow velocity?

A. grey-scale

B. simultaneous bilateral views

C. color Doppler

D. power Doppler

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4

Which of the following is false concerning retrograde urethrogram?

A. coning at the bulbar urethra is normal

B. segmental narrowing at bulbar urethra is normal

C. multiple round filling defects could be air bubbles

D. indicated in urethral trauma cases

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4

Which of the following is NOT an indication of static cystography?

A. evaluating a probable bladder rupture

B. evaluating a probable colovesical or vesicovaginal fistulae

C. evaluating a probable intravesical pathology

D. evaluating a probable bladder diverticula

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4

Using ultrasonography, which testicular lesion is of low reflectivity with irregular borders, hypervascular rims but no internal vascularity to mention?

A. intratesticular hematoma

B. testicular abscess

C. orchitis

D. sex cord stromal tumors

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4

What is the hallmark finding on plain KUB of bladder exstrophy?

A. malunion of lumbar and/or sacral vertebral bodies

B. pelvic bone diastasis

C. sacral agenesis

D. fracture of anterior pubic rami

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4

What is false on comparing Tc-99m DTPA to Tc-99m MAG3?

A. DTPA provides better quality images with renal insufficiency

B. by giving captopril, MAG3 plasma clearance declines in hypertensive patients with renal artery stenosis but rises in those who do not have the disease

C. DTPA provides an excellent measurement of GFR

D. in pediatrics, MAG3 provides better quality images than DTPA

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4

Ultrasonic 3.5 MHz curved array probe is suitable to detect:

A. epididymal cysts

B. testicular tumors

C. renal stones

D. penile vasculature

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4

What is the improper usage of TRUS?

A. to evaluate ejaculatory duct obstruction in infertility case

B. to screen for prostate cancers

C. to take prostate biopsies

D. to place interstitial radiotherapy seeds

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4

In routine practice, when do urologists request plain skull X-ray?

A. advanced prostatic cancer

B. central diabetes insipidus

C. pituitary adenoma

D. a & c

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4

Which condition could present as a filling defect in the bladder on IVU study?

A. blood clot

B. fibro-epithelial polyp

C. sloughed renal papilla

D. all of the above

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4

On staging left kidney RCC using enhanced CT, the radiologist must look for:

A. extension of the tumor to the diaphragm

B. extension of the tumor to the right atrium

C. the density of calcifications

D. the amount and bilaterality of cysts formation

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4

What matter does correspond to zero Hounsfield units?

A. air

B. water

C. fat

D. bone

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4

What imaging modality is superior in detecting undescended testis in the abdomen?

A. MRI

B. CT

C. ultrasound

D. all are comparable

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4

Which statement concerning phlebolith is false?

A. can be mistaken for a ureteral stone

B. is a small single, usually spiky, calcification within a vein

C. the amount of phleboliths increases with age

D. appears more often on the left than on the right side of the pelvis

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4

Using CT scanning, which solid kidney mass is sharply demarcated with uniform enhancement and often has a central scar?

A. RCC

B. metastases

C. angiomyolipoma

D. oncocytoma

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4

Using CT scanning, which solid kidney mass is well-defined, heterogeneous tumor, located in the renal cortex and containing areas of fat density of -20 HU or less. No calcifications, but some areas of enhancement?

A. RCC

B. metastases

C. angiomyolipoma

D. oncocytoma

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4

What is correct concerning sound waves?

A. The higher the frequency, the deeper tissue penetration

B. The higher the frequency, the better the axial resolution

C. low-frequency transducers are of 6 to 10 MHz

D. the deeper tissue penetration, the better axial resolution

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4

Which statement is true concerning renal ultrasonography?

A. end-stage renal failure kidneys look small and hypoechoic

B. it is more accurate on diagnosing cystic lesions than solid masses

C. it is able to detect tumors as small as 2 mm

D. cortical carbuncle might be mistaken for hydronephrosis