Home
Current Affairs January 2024

What is the correct answer?

4

What is the first-line treatment of kidney stones of a burden greater than 2 cm?

A. ESWL

B. URS

C. PCNL

D. none of the above

Correct Answer :

C. PCNL


PCNL is first-line therapy for kidney stone burdens 2 cm and greater.

Related Questions

What is the correct answer?

4

What is true concerning primary hyperparathyroidism and stone formation?

A. orthophosphates may have a role in the treatment

B. hyperparathyroidectomy and levothyroxine replacement is the optimum treatment

C. management includes Calcium chelating agent and repeat 24hr urine collection in 3 months

D. surgical excision of the adenoma(s) is the treatment of choice

What is the correct answer?

4

What type of urinary diversion carries the highest risk of stone formation?

A. Kock pouch

B. Neobladder-to-urethra diversion

C. Florida pouch

D. Indiana pouch

What is the correct answer?

4

What does the treatment of hyperuricemia with urate stones include?

A. oral potassium sodium hydrogen citrate granules

B. increase hydration

C. allopurinol

D. all of the above

What is the correct answer?

4

What is the most common composition of ureteral stones?

A. Ca.phosphate

B. Ca.oxalate

C. Na.urate

D. struvite

What is the correct answer?

4

Ureteral stones of ≥ 7 mm:

A. should be treated with more analgesics

B. must undergo metabolic worked out

C. are unlikely to pass out spontaneously

D. chemolysis should be tried first

What is the correct answer?

4

What is false concerning cystine stones?

A. result from an inherited defect of renal tubular reabsorption of cysteine

B. characteristically, urate and cysteine stone are radiolucent

C. cysteine is a dibasic amino acid

D. on plain X-ray, cysteine stones exhibit ground-glass appearance

What is the correct answer?

4

What is false concerning neonatal nephrolithiasis?

A. frequently caused by loop diuretics

B. stones are often radiolucent

C. may be reversed by the use of thiazides

D. low calcium-to-creatinine ratio predicts stones resolution

What is the correct answer?

4

What does NOT appear as a filling defect in the renal pelvis on IVU?

A. fungal ball

B. radiolucent stone

C. urothelial growth

D. upper end of DJ ureteral stent

What is the correct answer?

4

What is the sure diagnostic finding of Ca.oxalate stones?

A. chemical analysis of a recovered stone

B. hypercalcemia

C. CT finding

D. high breakability on ESWL

What is the correct answer?

4

What is false concerning staghorn calculus?

A. commonly unilateral

B. commonly due to repeated infections

C. urate stones are the second most common cause of staghorn calculi

D. ESWL monotherapy with ureteral stenting is the ideal treatment

What is the correct answer?

4

Two weeks of prolonged wound drainage after a non-stented Anderson-Hynes pyeloplasty. What would be next step in the management?

A. watchful waiting

B. open surgical correction

C. IVU with possible endoscopic ureteral stenting

D. perc. nephrostomy tube insertion

What is the correct answer?

4

When should renal stone patients be evaluated for metabolic diseases?

A. when stones are multiple and/or recurrent

B. when stones form in childhood

C. in cases where nephrocalcinosis and urolithiasis are present

D. all of the above

What is the correct answer?

4

What are the expected findings on urinalysis in patients with acute renal colic?

A. blood cells more than pus cells

B. pus cells if infection was superadded

C. crystals might appear

D. all of the above

What is the correct answer?

4

What is false regarding DJ ureteral stents?

A. can be introduced from the bladder or kidney or any part of the ureter`s course

B. the standard adult size is 32 cm long, 4 mm calibre

C. might result in encrustations and ureteral obstruction

D. might result in ureteral dilation

What is the correct answer?

4

What is the most favorable stone characteristics for laparoscopic and robotic approaches for the treatment of a kidney stone?

A. a stone in the lower calyx with a wide mouth of infundibulum and obtuse lower calyx to ureter angle

B. a stone in an anterior group calyceal diverticulum with thin overlying renal parenchyma

C. 5 mm calcium-containing stone in an intrarenal pelvis and wide UPJ

D. 6 years post anatrophic nephrolithotomy, recurrent mid calyceal stone

What is the correct answer?

4

Which event is unlikely to occur after placing a DJ ureteral stent?

A. can be forgotten in place

B. vesico-renal reflux

C. calyceal perforation

D. detrusor irritability and/or hematuria

What is the correct answer?

4

What sequence of ureteral parts represents the most to least favorable stone response to ESWL treatment?

A. upper, lower, mid

B. lower, upper, mid

C. mid, upper, lower

D. mid, lower, upper

What is the correct answer?

4

How can the effectiveness of ESWL treatment session be enhanced?

A. by ensuring optimal coupling of the patient to the lithotripter

B. by running the treatment at a slower rate (60 shocks/min)

C. by running the treatment with general anesthesia

D. by all of the above

What is the correct answer?

4

What statement is false concerning the use of desmopressin (DDAVP) in renal colic patients?

A. it causes reduction in the mean intra-ureteral pressure

B. it reduces the pain of acute renal colic

C. it has a direct relaxing effect on the renal pelvis and ureteral musculature

D. it is indicated when stones are ≤ 4 mm in diameter

What is the correct answer?

4

Which method of the following stone analysis techniques is based on the interaction of polarized light with the stone crystals?

A. wet chemical analysis

B. thermogravimetry

C. scanning electron microscopy

D. none of the above

What is the correct answer?

4

What is true concerning uric acid stones?

A. they are metabolic stones that form at high urinary pH

B. they score 800 1000 HU on CT

C. only 25% of affected patients have Gout disease

D. affected patients must stop eating animal protein

What is the correct answer?

4

What is the most favorable stone characteristic for PCNL treatment?

A. ≥ 2 cm diameter

B. upper calyx location

C. Na.urate composition

D. 600 - 800 HU density

What is the correct answer?

4

Worldwide, the commonest type of urinary stones is:

A. calcium monohydrate

B. calcium oxalate

C. ammonium urate

D. none of the above

What is the correct answer?

4

What is true regarding a stone in a urethral diverticulum?

A. is symptomless

B. should undergo a trial of milking out

C. diverticulectomy and stone extraction is the treatment of choice

D. ESWL is the preferred treatment option

What is the correct answer?

4

What is false concerning urethral stones?

A. stones at posterior urethra could be pushed back to the bladder

B. stones at anterior urethra have to undergo a trial of milking out, using copious intra-urethral xylocaine gel

C. often respond to a two-week course of tamsulosin

D. respond to Holmium laser treatment

What is the correct answer?

4

What parameter impairs the kidney stone-free rate, after ESWL?

A. short skin-to-stone distance (SSD)

B. end-stage renal failure

C. a stone in the upper calyx

D. the presence of a 30 cm, 4.7 Fr ureteral stent in situ

What is the correct answer?

4

What medication could help in managing carbonate apatite stones?

A. α-Mercaptopropionylglycine

B. acetohydroxamic acid

C. carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

D. xanthine oxidase inhibitors

What is the correct answer?

4

What is false concerning prostatic stones?

A. composed of calcium phosphate and calcium carbonate

B. the vast majority are asymptomatic

C. most of the calculi are found in the transitional zone

D. they dont affect PSA levels

What is the correct answer?

4

Why do patients with cystic fibrosis form stones?

A. because urine and body secretions are highly concentrated

B. due to renal leak hypercalciuria

C. as a result of distal renal tubular acidosis type I

D. because of reduced or absent of oxalobacter formigenes colonization

What is the correct answer?

4

What congenital anomaly is unlikely to result in stone formation?

A. left ureterocele

B. bifid right renal pelvis

C. neurogenic bladder

D. bilateral UPJ stenosis