A. rhabdomyosarcoma

B. liposarcoma

C. sarcomatoid tumor

D. angiosarcoma

A. yolk cell tumors

B. spermatocytic seminoma

C. choriocarcinoma

D. embryonal carcinoma

A. adult choriocarcinoma arise from ITGCN

B. spermatocytic seminoma arises from ITGCN

C. typically, pediatric germ cell tumors (GCT) do not arise from ITGCN

D. ITGCN is the common precursor for most of adult male GCT

A. over 80%

B. over 85%

C. over 90 %

D. over 95 %

A. polyembryoma

B. teratoma

C. embryonal carcinoma

D. mixed germ cell tumor

A. pure embryonal carcinoma may increase serum α-FP and hCG levels

B. pure seminoma increases serum hCG levels in 15% of cases but not α-FP

C. typically, endodermal sinus tumors dont increase any tumor marker

D. pure choriocarcinoma is associated with high hCG levels but not α-FP

A. 3 months

B. 3 spermatogenic cycles

C. 3 yrs.

D. damage is permanent

A. lymphoma

B. spermatocytic seminoma

C. adenocarcinoma

D. cystadenoma

A. the risk of developing germ cell tumor when an undescended testis is in the abdomen is greater than when it is in the inguinal canal

B. orchiopexy for boys younger than 6 yrs. lowers the risk of cancer development

C. a normally descended testis carries 5-20% risk of developing cancer when its mate is undescended

D. the risk of cancer increases in cryptorchid patients over 33 yrs. of age

A. should be suspected in any patient with a very high hCG level on diagnosis

B. the commonest subtype that causes brain metastases is choriocarcinoma

C. these patients should receive 4 cycles of bleomycin-etoposide-cisplatin as first-line chemotherapy

D. early initiation of chemotherapy ensures a good prognosis

A. rhabdomyosarcoma

B. liposarcoma

C. sarcomatoid tumor

D. angiosarcoma

A. peripheral neuropathy

B. renal failure

C. Raynaud phenomenon

D. hypogonadism

A. in pure seminoma α-FP is normal

B. if syncytiotrophoblastic giant cells are present, β-hCG may be elevated

C. spermatocytic seminomas rarely metastasize without sarcomatous differentiation

D. pure seminoma constitutes approximately 90% of pure germ cell tumors

A. fossa navicularis

B. bulbomembranous urethra

C. prostatic urethra

D. external urethral meatus

A. yolk cell tumors

B. choriocarcinomas

C. embryonal carcinomas

D. pure seminomas

A. environmental conditions exposing the testes to high temperature

B. 47XXY genotype

C. prior testicular cancers

D. cryptorchidism

A. active surveillance is recommended for patients with horseshoe kidney

B. adjuvant chemotherapy with a single dose of carboplatin is recommended as an alternative to radiation therapy

C. the number of positive nodes dissected dictates the number of chemotherapy cycles to be given

D. cure is possible after radical orchiectomy alone

A. greater than 90%

B. lesser than 40%

C. greater than 70%

D. lesser than 20%

A. suspected germ cell tumor (GCT) with a normal contralateral testis

B. in case of bilateral synchronous testicular GCT

C. suspected benign testicular lesions

D. suspected GCT of < 2 cm tumor size in a solitary testis

A. in a patient with a history of GCTs, the finding of testicular microlithiasis on ultrasonography poses a higher risk of intratubular germ cell neoplasia

B. occur bilaterally approximately 2% of cases

C. are extragonadal in 1 - 5%

D. are more likely to contain embryonal tumor cells than tumors arising in the testis

A. high levels of α-FP are found only in non-seminomas

B. high levels of α-FP may result from marijuana use

C. β-hCG levels above 10,000 mIU/mL are seen only in germ cell tumors and hepatocellular carcinoma

D. LDH is a useful marker for surveillance after tumor extirpation

A. occurs in men over 60 yrs.

B. does not contain an isochromosome 12p

C. constitutes a considerable part of mixed germ cell tumors

D. rarely metastasizes without sarcomatous differentiation

A. evaluates post chemotherapy residual masses in pure seminoma cases

B. helps stage non-seminomatous germ cell tumors

C. all of the above

D. used for active surveillance in non-operable cases

A. in approximately 60% of patients, post-chemotherapy residual masses are either viable cancer cells or teratoma

B. nearly one half will be azoospermic after 2 years of therapy

C. in seminoma stage II-B, primary chemotherapy with 3 cycles of bleomycin, etoposide and cisplatin (BEP), and 4 cycles of chemotherapy with etoposide and cisplatin (EP) are recommended

D. in seminoma stage II-B, II-C, III after primary treatment with chemotherapy, surveillance is recommended for residual masses of 3 cm or less detected by PET scan

A. patients in whom retroperitoneal LN dissection (RPLND) reveals viable cancer cells after chemotherapy, subsequent chemotherapy is recommended

B. surgical resection is recommended for patients with residual disease after chemotherapy

C. open nerve-sparing RPLND might lead to premature ejaculation

D. in non-seminoma patients stage I-A, I-B, 1S on long-term surveillance, relapses are expected in 80% of cases within the first year after orchiectomy

A. 10 - 20%

B. 20 - 60%

C. 60 - 80%

D. 80 - 90%

A. mature teratoma

B. immature teratoma

C. cystadenoma

D. adenomatoid tumor

A. undergo laparoscopic lymph node sampling

B. receive induction chemotherapy

C. undergo extensive retroperitoneal lymph node dissection

D. go for palliative therapy

A. elevation of only α-FP indicates pure non-seminoma

B. elevation of α-FP might occur in chronic liver disease, hepatitis, and alcohol abuse

C. elevation of LDH indicates tumor burden and growth rate

D. elevation of β-hCG above 10,000 mIU/mL is seen only in germ cell tumors

A. younger than 10 yrs.

B. older than 50 yrs.

C. between 20 27 yrs.

D. between 28 35 yrs.

A. is considered based on a histologic evidence

B. should not be performed through a scrotal incision

C. preoperative biopsy is required for histologic examination

D. entails early clamping of the cord at the external inguinal ring level