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4

What is the number of bacteria per high-power field microscopy that matches colony counts of 100,000/mL?

A. 100

B. 50

C. 10

D. 5

Correct Answer :

D. 5


self-explanatory.

Related Questions

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4

What is the prime effect of antidiuretic hormone on kidneys?

A. increase collecting duct permeability

B. increase medullary blood flow

C. decrease cortical blood flow

D. decrease potassium secretion

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4

What class of antibiotics might cause vestibular and/or auditory impairment?

A. aminoglycosides

B. αantipseudomonal penicillins

C. cephalosporins

D. fluoroquinolones

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4

What causes Cushing`s disease is:

A. bilateral adrenal hyperplasia

B. pituitary over secretion of ACTH

C. exogenous administration of glucocorticoids

D. immune-mediated disease

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4

Which innervations mediate detumescence?

A. cavernous nerves

B. dorsal nerves of the penis

C. sympathetic nervous system

D. parasympathetic nervous system

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4

Which of the following does NOT increase in prostate cancer?

A. human kallikrein 2

B. pro-PSA

C. free PSA

D. complexed PSA

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4

What is false concerning renal vasculature?

A. there are 4 surgical segments of the kidney, based on the segmental artery distribution

B. along the kidney convexity, there is an avascular plane

C. there are no collaterals between segmental arteries

D. in < 10%, the posterior branch is the first to branch off the renal artery

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4

Which of the following carries the greatest risk of HIV transmission to health care workers?

A. splash of patient`s blood to the eyes

B. splash of patient`s blood to the mouth

C. surgical suture needle stick

D. hollow bore needle stick

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4

Branches of what artery travel under the endopelvic fascia form the prostate to the sidewall of the pelvis?

A. obturator artery

B. midrectal artery

C. inferior vesical artery

D. pudendal artery

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4

Hematuria of glomerular origin is associated with:

A. significant proteinuria, dysmorphic RBCs, RBC casts

B. glycosuria, eumorphic RBCs, WBC casts

C. hypercalciuria, eumorphic RBCs, granular casts

D. proteinuria, dysmorphic RBCs, hyaline casts

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4

Which of the following does NOT affect serum creatinine?

A. gender

B. age

C. obstructing stone at left lower ureter

D. rhabdomyolysis

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4

Which of the prostate medications could result in retrograde ejaculation?

A. tamsulosin

B. doxazosin

C. dutasteride

D. alfuzosin

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4

Where is Santorini plexus located?

A. at either side of the prostate

B. in the pubo-prostatic space

C. anterior to the seminal vesicles

D. posterior to the vaso-epididymal junction

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4

The manifestations of autonomic dysreflexia include:

A. hypotension and tachycardia

B. hypotension and bradycardia

C. hypertension and tachycardia

D. hypertension and bradycardia

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4

What is the most significant innervation of the vas deferens?

A. sympathetic nervous system

B. parasympathetic nervous system

C. somatic nervous system

D. none of the above

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4

What are the first and second most common zones from where prostate cancers arise?

A. central then transitional

B. peripheral then transitional

C. peripheral then central

D. transitional then central

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4

Which of the following is NOT a cause of hypocitraturia?

A. high protein diet

B. hypokalaemia

C. proximal renal tubular acidosis

D. idiopathic

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4

What is false concerning fosfomycin antibiotic?

A. has a limited cross-resistance with most common antibacterial agents

B. causes injection site reactions

C. is active against most uropathogens

D. is effective as a single-dose agent

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4

Which of the following is NOT a component of the normal semen?

A. zinc

B. fructose

C. prostate-specific antigen

D. alkaline phosphatase

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4

Which of the following contributes second to the seminal fluid by volume?

A. seminal vesicles

B. the prostate

C. testes

D. bulbourethral glands

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4

What causes pink diaper syndrome is (are):

A. Staphylococcus epidermidis in the urine

B. dried urate crystals on the diaper

C. Adenovirus 11 in the urine

D. Candidiasis in the urine

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4

Which statement concerning urine pH is false?

A. influenced by food and medications

B. renal stones form at the extremes of pH range

C. reliable only when measured by 24 hr. urine collection

D. ranges from 4 7

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4

Which lab results indicate poor prognosis of male infertility?

A. azoospermia; normal FSH; increase LH

B. azoospermia; decrease FSH; normal LH

C. oligospermia; increase FSH; normal LH

D. oligospermia; normal FSH; decrease LH

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4

What is the best initial therapy for hyponatremic dehydration?

A. administration of hypertonic saline

B. administration of crystalloid

C. administration of normal saline

D. administration of ringer lactate

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4

Which of the following does asymptomatic hematuria workup include?

A. cystoscopy

B. CT urography

C. urine cytology

D. all of the above

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4

Which statement regarding post-obstructive diuresis (POD) is false?

A. urine production exceeding 200 ml/hr for 2 consecutive hours or producing greater than 3 L of urine in 24 hours is diagnostic of POD

B. pathologic POD can be exacerbated by excessive fluid replacement

C. the replacement fluid choice is ringer lactate

D. fluid resuscitation depends on the degree of dehydration

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4

What is the best method to evaluate calcium levels in the urine?

A. from early morning urine sample

B. comparing urine and serum calcium at a given time

C. performing 24 urine collection

D. from a mid-stream urine sample

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4

Which disease is described best by the following manifestations: grand mal epilepsy, mental retardation, hypertension, angiomyolipoma, adenoma sebaceum, bilateral enlarged kidneys, and normal renal function?

A. autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease

B. von Hippel-Lindau disease

C. tuberous sclerosis

D. Sturge-Webber syndrome

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4

Which agent should be avoided during living-related donor nephrectomy?

A. ice slush

B. heparin

C. norepinephrine

D. methylene blue

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4

Which action of thigh muscles could be impaired if the obturator nerve was injured during endoscopic resection of bladder tumors?

A. adduction

B. abduction

C. flexion

D. extension

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4

At which condition is alpha-fetoprotein most frequently elevated?

A. infiltrating ductal carcinoma of the breast

B. seminoma

C. hepatocellular carcinoma

D. malignant melanoma