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What is the correct answer?

4

When comparing HoLEP to open prostatectomy for a 70 g prostatic adenoma removal; what parameter goes in favor of the latter?

A. operation time

B. duration of in-hospital stay

C. amount of blood transfused

D. time to catheter removal

Correct Answer :

A. operation time


it ranges from 0.2% to 1% of cases (Rieken et al, 2010).

Related Questions

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4

Which statement is false regarding laser enucleation of the Prostate (HoLEP)?

A. provides tissue preservation for pathological examination

B. treats any size of prostatic adenoma

C. follows anatomic planes to remove the prostate in lobes

D. urinary incontinence is a significant drawback after HoLEP

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4

Complications related to obstructive BPH/LUTS include all of the following, EXCEPT:

A. bladder stones

B. prostate cancer

C. renal insufficiency

D. bladder diverticula

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4

Prostatic nodules palpated on DRE might indicate:

A. tuberculous prostatitis

B. prostatic cancer

C. inspissated prostatic abscess

D. any of the above

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4

c. each centimeter over the normal 2.5-cm prostate urethral length equates

A. an additional 15 g in prostate weight

B. each centimeter over the normal 1.5-cm prostate urethral length equates

C. an additional 5 g in prostate weight

D. . When comparing suprapubic to retropubic prostatectomy for removing prostatic adenoma, the former allows:

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4

What is true regarding BPH and androgens?

A. as a man ages, the responsiveness of prostate cells to androgenic stimuli decreases

B. adrenal androgens have no role in BPH development

C. type-1 steroid 5 α-reductase is functionally active in the hair follicle

D. all of the above

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4

Which statement is false regarding TURP syndrome?

A. occurs because of absorption of non-sodium-containing irrigating fluid

B. occurs only on using unipolar TURP

C. results in brain edema due to dilutional hyponatremia

D. positioning the patient in anti-Trendelenburg helps prevent the syndrome

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4

What is false concerning the diagnosis of BPH?

A. IPSS cannot be used to establish the diagnosis of BPH/LUTS

B. prostate biopsy is essential in diagnosing BPH and excluding cancers

C. PSA and uroflowmetry help diagnose the condition

D. none of the above

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4

What prostatic lobe(s) can be assessed during DRE?

A. anterior

B. median

C. left lateral

D. all of the above

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4

as adjuncts therapy in BPH cases?

A. men with storage symptoms

B. men with ED

C. failed combination of α-adrenergic blocker and 5α-reductase inhibitor

D. a & b

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4

What is (are) the possible complication(s) of prostate stents?

A. hematuria and infections

B. migration and encrustation of the stent

C. irritative urinary symptoms and painful ejaculation

D. all of the above

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4

What is the likelihood that PSA level in men with acute urinary retention due to urethral stricture will decrease after catheterization?

A. never

B. unlikely

C. likely

D. always

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4

What drug prevents recurrent gross hematuria secondary to BPH?

A. enoxaparin

B. silodosin

C. finasteride

D. tolterodine

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4

What is the capsular perforation rate in prostate vaporization surgery?

A. 0.2 1%

B. 1.2 2.1%

C. 2.3 3.4%

D. 3.7 5.6%

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4

IPSS decreases after successful TURP because:

A. PSA decreases

B. the prostate size decreases

C. the complaints resolve

D. the Q.O.L improves

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4

a. urethral stricture

A. bladder stones

B. BPH

C. prostatitis syndrome

D. . What is (are) the indication(s) of antimuscarinic agents and PDEIs

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4

What is true regarding mirabegron, the β3 agonist, in treating BPH?

A. achieves better results when combined with antimuscarinic

B. enhances detrusor contractility resulting in higher Q-max

C. enhance detrusor relaxation during bladder-filling phase

D. increases voiding pressure that poses risk on renal function

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4

What is false regarding prostate embolization for BPH?

A. the aim is to occlude the internal iliac vessels

B. there is a considerable radiation risk during the procedure

C. bilateral embolization provides better results

D. eye protection is not required

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4

Transurethral incision of the prostate (TUIP):

A. is only indicated in small prostates

B. complications are related to the amount of lost blood and removed chips

C. is a minimal procedure where no risk of rectal injury or retrograde ejaculation have been reported

D. it entails making 1 or 2 incisions along all prostate lobes except the apical

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4

What is false regarding BPH genetics?

A. BPH is an inheritable and progressive disease

B. familial BPH presents at an older age when compared to sporadic cases

C. approximately 90% of men in their 80s have histologic evidence of BPH

D. BPH tends to be more severe and progressive in black men when compared to whites

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4

Which of the following is NOT classified as a complicated LUTS?

A. LUTS with neurologic disease

B. LUTS with post-void dribble

C. LUTS with suspicious DRE

D. LUTS with hematuria

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4

Which statement(s) describe(s) the bladders response to an obstructing prostate?

A. it may develop detrusor instability with irritative LUTS

B. it may develop poor compliance with frequency and urgency symptoms

C. it may develop poor detrusor contractility with obstructive LUTS

D. all of the above

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4

What is false concerning BPH and androgenic hormones?

A. the most potent androgenic hormones in BPH development is DHT

B. type-2 steroid 5 α-reductase, is most commonly found in the prostate

C. castrated individuals before puberty will not develop BPH

D. as a man ages, the number of androgen receptors in the prostate decreases

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4

What is false concerning bladder and prostate histology in BPH?

A. obstruction results in bladder smooth muscle hypertrophy and myofibroblasts deposition

B. BPH occurs chiefly in the transitional zone and periurethral tissues

C. BPH microscopical changes begin in early thirties

D. histologic findings of chronic prostatitis are common in BPH

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4

The probability of developing acute urinary retention is related to:

A. the neurological status of the patient

B. PVR

C. severity of obstructive LUTS

D. all of the above

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4

What statement is true regarding post-void residual of urine (PVR)?

A. nearly all men have PVR of less than 12 ml

B. it predicts the outcome of surgical treatment

C. it correlates well with BPH/LUTS

D. it is diagnostic for bladder outlet obstruction

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4

What is (are) true concerning IPSS questionnaire?

A. it focuses on last month`s symptoms

B. scores of moderate symptoms suggest surgical treatment if the patient`s quality of life was poor

C. it has been validated and translated to many languages

D. all of the above

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4

a. α-adrenergic blocker

A. combination of α-adrenergic blocker and 5α-reductase inhibitor

B. watchful waiting

C. TURP

D. . What is the commonest cause of LUTS in men beyond middle age?

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4

In BPH patients, total PSA level correlates to:

A. the glandular component of the prostate

B. the IPSS questionnaire points

C. the PVR

D. the transitional zone volume

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4

Anticholinergic medications work best with BPH patients who have:

A. small prostate

B. mainly median lobe hypertrophy

C. history of urinary retention

D. mainly irritative symptoms

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4

What is false concerning IPSS questionnaire?

A. is specific for prostate symptom

B. is a seven-question, self-administered questionnaire that yields a total score that ranges from 0 to 35

C. a sum of 20 on IPSS scale is severe

D. it covers both voiding and storage symptomatology