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4

Where do Randall plaques originate from?

A. transitional epithelium lining minor calyces

B. transitional epithelium lining major calyces

C. basement membrane of the loops of Henle

D. papillary tips of polar pyramids

Correct Answer :

C. basement membrane of the loops of Henle


in idiopathic calcium oxalate stone formers, Randall plaques originate from the basement membrane of the thin loops of Henle.

Related Questions

What is the correct answer?

4

Worldwide, the commonest type of urinary stones is:

A. calcium monohydrate

B. calcium oxalate

C. ammonium urate

D. none of the above

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4

What stones are radiopaque on plain X-ray film?

A. 2,8 dihydroxyadenine stones

B. sulfa medications-induced stones

C. calcium oxalate stones

D. matrix stones

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4

What risk factor(s) promote(s) stone formation?

A. dehydration

B. metabolic disorders

C. congenital anomalies

D. all of the above

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4

What is the preferred entry point into the collecting system for PCNL for a 2.4 cm renal pelvis stone?

A. anterior lower pole calyx

B. posterior lower pole calyx

C. anterior upper pole calyx

D. posterior upper pole calyx

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4

Which statement is false concerning renal stones related to hyperparathyroidism (HPT)?

A. renal stones are found in 20% of patients with primary HPT

B. acidic arrest promotes crystallisation of calcium phosphate stones related to HPT

C. HPT, vitamin D excess, and malignancy could lead to hypercalcemia and hypercalciuria

D. only surgery can cure primary HPT

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4

What is false concerning cystine stones?

A. have diagnostic hexagonal crystals

B. dont respond to ESWL therapy

C. are highly soluble in water

D. inherited in an autosomal recessive fashion

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4

What is the sure diagnostic finding of Ca.oxalate stones?

A. chemical analysis of a recovered stone

B. hypercalcemia

C. CT finding

D. high breakability on ESWL

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4

What is false concerning recurrent stone formation?

A. best treated by total parathyroidectomy

B. first-time stone formers are at a 50% risk for recurrence

C. males have higher recurrence rate than females

D. stone formers produce stones of the same type every time

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4

What is false concerning PCNL in horseshoe kidneys?

A. the preferred access into the collecting system is through a posterior calyx

B. the posterior calyceal group is typically more medial than in the normal kidney

C. in most cases the lower pole calyces are posterior

D. it is desirable to make an upper pole collecting system puncture

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4

What does the treatment of hyperuricemia with urate stones include?

A. oral potassium sodium hydrogen citrate granules

B. increase hydration

C. allopurinol

D. all of the above

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4

What is (are) true concerning ESWL?

A. a stone is fragmented when the force of the shockwaves overcomes the tensile strength of the stone

B. fragmentation occurs as a result of compressive and tensile forces, erosion, shearing, spalling, and cavitation

C. the generation of compressive and tensile forces and cavitation are thought to be the most important

D. all of the above

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4

What is false concerning primary bladder stones?

A. commoner in females than in males

B. in pediatrics, are of calcium oxalate and/or ammonium urate composition

C. caused by bladder outlet obstruction

D. might result in bladder cancer

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4

What kind of stones is most amenable to ESWL?

A. cystine

B. brushite

C. Ca.oxalate monohydrate

D. Ca.oxalate dihydrate

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4

Where do Randall plaques originate from?

A. transitional epithelium lining minor calyces

B. transitional epithelium lining major calyces

C. basement membrane of the loops of Henle

D. papillary tips of polar pyramids

What is the correct answer?

4

What is the unfavorable stone characteristic for a rigid URS treatment?

A. size of 5 mm

B. location at the lower calyx

C. density of 400 HU

D. being recurrent

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4

Two weeks of prolonged wound drainage after a non-stented Anderson-Hynes pyeloplasty. What would be next step in the management?

A. watchful waiting

B. open surgical correction

C. IVU with possible endoscopic ureteral stenting

D. perc. nephrostomy tube insertion

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4

What medication(s) could be helpful in the management of cystinuria?

A. α-Mercaptopropionylglycine

B. d-Penicillamine

C. a & b

D. none of the above

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4

What is false concerning obesity and urinary stone formation?

A. obese patients have a higher tendency for uric acid stone formation

B. high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet might increase the risk of stone formation and bone loss

C. metabolic syndrome is associated with high urinary pH

D. Roux-en-Y-gastric bypass surgery may increase the risk for stone formation

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4

What is true concerning the use of intravenous fluids in renal colic cases?

A. patients should be given large amounts of fluids to hasten stones passage

B. fluids are given to keep the patient well hydrated

C. the recommended regimen is 2 L of ringer lactate over 2 hours

D. fluids are contraindicated if desmopressin (DDAVP) was given

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4

What bowel surgery could result in enteric hyperoxaluria?

A. right hemicolectomy

B. small bowel resection

C. Roux-en-Y gastric bypass

D. b & c

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4

What is true regarding DJ ureteral stents?

A. can be placed through perc. nephrostomy

B. might slip out, especially in females

C. usually radiopaque

D. all of the above

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4

Which of the following dietary advice is recommended for Ca.oxalate stone formers?

A. limit beef, chicken, pork, eggs, fish, shellfish, and other animal proteins

B. limit beans, nuts, chocolate, coffee, dark green vegetables, and soda

C. limit canned, packaged, and fast foods

D. limit milk, cheese, and other dairy products

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4

What is the proper sequence of the following stones when ordered from most radiopaque to most radiolucent as they appear on plain Xray film?

A. Ca.oxalate, Ca.phosphate, Na.urate, cystine

B. Ca.phosphate, Ca.oxalate, cystine, Na.urate

C. Ca.oxalate, Ca.phosphate, cystine, Na.urate

D. Ca.phosphate, Ca.oxalate, Na.urate, cystine

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4

What medication could help in managing carbonate apatite stones?

A. α-Mercaptopropionylglycine

B. acetohydroxamic acid

C. carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

D. xanthine oxidase inhibitors

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4

What is the most appropriate antibiotic class for prophylaxis before urologic surgery?

A. aminoglycosides

B. macrolides

C. cephalosporins

D. fluoroquinolones

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4

What is (are) the indication(s) of ureteral stenting before ESWL?

A. stones in a solitary kidney

B. ureteral stones causing bilateral obstructions

C. a kidney stone of ≥ 2.5 cm in size

D. all of the above

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4

What is the immediate management of ureteral avulsion on retrieving an upper ureteral stone by a basket?

A. placement of a percutaneous nephrostomy drain

B. surgical exploration and primary repair

C. conservative management

D. endoscopic retrograde ureteral stenting

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4

What is the treatment of choice for a 15 mm stone in the lower calyx with a narrow infundibulum?

A. ESWL

B. PCNL

C. radial nephrolithotomy

D. pyelolithotomy with ureteral stenting

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4

What statement is false concerning the use of desmopressin (DDAVP) in renal colic patients?

A. it causes reduction in the mean intra-ureteral pressure

B. it reduces the pain of acute renal colic

C. it has a direct relaxing effect on the renal pelvis and ureteral musculature

D. it is indicated when stones are ≤ 4 mm in diameter

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4

Which of the following bacteria split urea?

A. Klebsiella pneumonia

B. Morganella morganii

C. Proteus mirabilis

D. all of the above