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4

Which of the following is an indication of VCUG?

A. repeated febrile UTI in children

B. evaluating a probable posterior urethral valve

C. a & b

D. none of the above

Correct Answer :

C. a & b


vesicoureteral reflux should be excluded in repeated febrile UTI in children.

Related Questions

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4

Which statement is true concerning renal ultrasonography?

A. end-stage renal failure kidneys look small and hypoechoic

B. it is more accurate on diagnosing cystic lesions than solid masses

C. it is able to detect tumors as small as 2 mm

D. cortical carbuncle might be mistaken for hydronephrosis

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4

How does a full bladder appear on ultrasonography?

A. hyperechoic

B. hypoechoic

C. isoechoic

D. anechoic

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4

Which statement is false concerning plain KUB film?

A. reliable tool to exclude urinary calculi

B. calcifications at renal area might lead to the discovery of renal cancers

C. can detect soft tissues

D. fecoliths and phleboliths could be mistaken for calculi

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4

Regarding acute renal infections, what is the least diagnostic radionuclide study for detecting an inflammatory focus?

A. hippuran I-131

B. technetium-99m

C. gallium-67

D. indium-111labelled WBC

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4

Which of the following is an indication of VCUG?

A. repeated febrile UTI in children

B. evaluating a probable posterior urethral valve

C. a & b

D. none of the above

What is the correct answer?

4

What is correct concerning sound waves?

A. The higher the frequency, the deeper tissue penetration

B. The higher the frequency, the better the axial resolution

C. low-frequency transducers are of 6 to 10 MHz

D. the deeper tissue penetration, the better axial resolution

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4

Which statement is false concerning diuretic nuclear scintigraphy renogram?

A. an elimination T ½ < 10 minutes indicates obstructed system

B. the diuretic must be given at the maximum kidney activity

C. If ureteral stents are in place, the bladder catheter must be unclamped

D. 99mTc-MAG3 is the agent of choice to study differential renal function and obstruction

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4

Using ultrasonography, which testicular lesion is cystic with heterogeneous echoes representing a mixture of mucinous and/or sebaceous material with or without hair follicles, cartilages, and bones?

A. non-seminomatous germ cell tumors

B. acute bleed on top of old hematoma

C. mature teratoma

D. sex cord stromal tumors

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4

In routine practice, when do urologists request plain skull X-ray?

A. advanced prostatic cancer

B. central diabetes insipidus

C. pituitary adenoma

D. a & c

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4

Which of the following is NOT an indication of static cystography?

A. evaluating a probable bladder rupture

B. evaluating a probable colovesical or vesicovaginal fistulae

C. evaluating a probable intravesical pathology

D. evaluating a probable bladder diverticula

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4

To which class of Bosniak system of renal cysts does an oval renal parenchymal cyst of uniform water density filling, with attenuation of ≤ 20 HU, thin, non-calcified wall, and no contrast enhancement; belong to?

A. class 1

B. class 2

C. class 3

D. class 4

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4

Which condition tops the differential diagnoses list of CT picture of Xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis?

A. renal tuberculosis

B. renal abscess

C. renal cell carcinoma

D. angiomyolipoma

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4

Which of the following is NOT an indication of retrograde pyelography?

A. evaluation of probable ureteral obstruction

B. in conjunction with ureteroscopy

C. evaluation of hematuria

D. evaluation of probable ureterovesical reflux

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4

Which condition could present as a filling defect in the bladder on IVU study?

A. blood clot

B. fibro-epithelial polyp

C. sloughed renal papilla

D. all of the above

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4

What should type II diabetic patients on metformin do when going for intravenous contrast urography to avoid biguanide lactic acidosis?

A. take urine acidifiers

B. withhold metformin the day before the study and restart 48 hrs. later

C. get premedicated by steroids and antihistamines

D. decrease metformin dose and turn to insulin

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4

Which radiological modality carries the highest radiation hazard?

A. nuclear medicine

B. ultrasonography

C. X-ray fluoroscopy

D. intravenous urography

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4

On sagittal plane of midline TRUS, which structure might NOT be visible?

A. peripheral zone of the prostate

B. ejaculatory duct

C. tip of the right seminal vesicle

D. tip of the left lateral lobe of the prostate

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4

Using CT, which solid kidney mass is like a bulge of the renal contour characterized by normal corticomedullary patterns?

A. prominent columns of Bertin

B. xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis

C. lymphoma

D. renal infarction

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4

What is the minimum estimate of GFR to take gadolinium-based contrast agents?

A. more than 30 mL/min/1.73 m2

B. more than 60 mL/min/1.73 m2

C. more than 90 mL/min/1.73 m2

D. none of the above

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4

On staging left kidney RCC using enhanced CT, the radiologist must look for:

A. extension of the tumor to the diaphragm

B. extension of the tumor to the right atrium

C. the density of calcifications

D. the amount and bilaterality of cysts formation

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4

Using ultrasonography, which testicular lesion is of low reflectivity with irregular borders, hypervascular rims but no internal vascularity to mention?

A. intratesticular hematoma

B. testicular abscess

C. orchitis

D. sex cord stromal tumors

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4

What is the signal characteristic of renal stones on MRU?

A. high signal on T1-weighted images

B. high signal on T2-weighted images

C. low signal on T1-weighted images

D. none of the above

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4

What nuclear medicine study can diagnose interstitial nephritis?

A. DTPA

B. DMSA

C. gallium-67

D. MAG-3

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4

Which structure can NOT be assessed by TRUS of the prostate?

A. ejaculatory duct

B. vas deferens

C. seminal vesicles

D. rectal wall

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4

What is (are) the indication(s) of renal artery embolization?

A. bleeding angiomyolipomas

B. an alternative to nephrectomy in severe uncontrolled hypertension among patients with end-stage renal disease

C. renal artery aneurysms or symptomatic AV malformations

D. all of the above

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4

Which of the following is NOT an indication of renal arteriography?

A. preparation for donor nephrectomy

B. advanced RCC in the right kidney

C. renal artery stenosis

D. oncocytoma in the left kidney

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4

Which condition does NOT show a false positive result for hydronephrosis on ultrasonic examination?

A. hydrocalicosis

B. extrarenal pelvis

C. parapelvic cyst

D. class 2 Bosniak renal cyst

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4

What is false concerning ureteric jets?

A. obstruction of the upper urinary tract may increase renal pelvis pressure and delay or decrease pelvis peristaltic rates

B. measured by color Doppler flow mapping in transverse scans at the suprapubic region

C. patients with ureteral stents are the ideal

D. adequate hydration is necessary

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4

Which statement is false regarding magnetic resonance urography (MRU)?

A. small non-obstructive calculi might be missed at MRU performed for the evaluation of hematuria

B. in pediatrics, performing a dynamic contrast-enhanced imaging helps in evaluating crossing vessels in the setting of UPJ obstruction

C. the success of static-fluid MR urography depends on the presence of fluid within the urinary system regardless of renal function

D. MRU at 3T, carries the risk of nephrogenic systemic fibrosis

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4

Using ultrasonography, which testicular lesion is described as a solid, round, homogeneous, low-reflectivity tumor mass, with no calcification?

A. seminoma

B. embryonal cell tumor

C. mixed germ cell tumor

D. epidermoid cyst