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4

Why do patients with cystic fibrosis form stones?

A. because urine and body secretions are highly concentrated

B. due to renal leak hypercalciuria

C. as a result of distal renal tubular acidosis type I

D. because of reduced or absent of oxalobacter formigenes colonization

Correct Answer :

D. because of reduced or absent of oxalobacter formigenes colonization


reduced or absent O. formigenes colonization accounts for increasing intestinal oxalate absorption and reduced secretion.

Related Questions

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4

What are the expected findings on urinalysis in patients with acute renal colic?

A. blood cells more than pus cells

B. pus cells if infection was superadded

C. crystals might appear

D. all of the above

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4

As per the fixed particle theory of stone formation:

A. the initial step is papillary plaque formation

B. crystals formation occurs inside the nephron

C. tubular precipitates form harmless crystalluria

D. the attraction of organic compounds and activation crystallization is regulated by osteopontin

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4

What is true regarding prostatic stones?

A. they are multiple and small in size

B. usually, they are voided spontaneously

C. they, rarely, form large stones within the peripheral zone

D. contrast CT is the conventional method for diagnosis

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4

What is the treatment of choice for a 15 mm stone in a mid calyceal diverticulum?

A. ESWL

B. PCNL with fulguration of the diverticulum

C. ureteroscopy with fulguration of the diverticulum

D. pyelolithotomy with diverticulectomy

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4

What stone is inherited as an autosomal recessive trait?

A. xanthine

B. ammonium urate

C. cystine

D. calcium oxalate dihydrate

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4

What kind of stones is more likely to recur with infections if not removed completely?

A. urate

B. triple phosphate

C. oxalate monohydrate

D. matrix

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4

What condition might NOT cause uric acid stones?

A. Tumor lysis syndrome

B. hypoparathyroidism

C. myeloproliferative disorder

D. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

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4

What is false concerning urethral stones?

A. stones at posterior urethra could be pushed back to the bladder

B. stones at anterior urethra have to undergo a trial of milking out, using copious intra-urethral xylocaine gel

C. often respond to a two-week course of tamsulosin

D. respond to Holmium laser treatment

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4

What type of shockwaves is generated by spark-gap technology?

A. piezoelectric

B. electrohydraulic

C. electromagnetic

D. microexplosive

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4

What situation carries lower risk for lung injury during supracostal upper pole access for PCNL?

A. placing the patient in anti-Trendelenburg position

B. making the puncture under local anesthesia

C. injection Co2 gas to create a safety space under the diaphragm before puncturing

D. making the puncture during full expiration

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4

What is the fatality risk if a triple-phosphate staghorn stone left untreated?

A. 0 10%

B. 10 20%

C. 20 30%

D. 30 40%

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4

How does oral Mg.citrate inhibit Ca.oxalate stone formation?

A. by lowering urinary saturation of Ca.oxalate

B. by preventing heterogeneous nucleation of Ca.oxalate

C. by inhibiting spontaneous precipitation and agglomeration of Ca.oxalate

D. by all of the above

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4

What is the composition of brushite stones?

A. calcium phosphate

B. calcium oxalate monohydrate

C. sodium urate

D. 2,8 dihydroxyadenine

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4

Which patient is at lowest risk for the development of perinephric hematoma after ESWL?

A. hypertensive patient

B. patient on aspirin withheld 5 days prior to ESWL

C. a stone in a scared poorly functioning kidney

D. ESWL every other day

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4

What is true regarding DJ ureteral stents?

A. can be placed through perc. nephrostomy

B. might slip out, especially in females

C. usually radiopaque

D. all of the above

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4

What is false concerning patient`s preparation for PCNL?

A. active UTI is an absolute contraindication

B. fluoroquinolone is the first choice for antimicrobial prophylaxis

C. withholding aspirin for only 10 days is enough

D. despite sterile urine, stone fragmentation might release hidden bacterial endotoxins and viable bacteria

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4

What type of stones is most effectively treated with PCNL?

A. Ca.oxalate monohydrate

B. cystine

C. matrix

D. Ca.oxalate dihydrate

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4

How is primary oxaluria treated?

A. terminal ilium resection

B. liver transplantation

C. kidney transplantation

D. regular hemodialysis

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4

What is (are) true concerning ESWL?

A. a stone is fragmented when the force of the shockwaves overcomes the tensile strength of the stone

B. fragmentation occurs as a result of compressive and tensile forces, erosion, shearing, spalling, and cavitation

C. the generation of compressive and tensile forces and cavitation are thought to be the most important

D. all of the above

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4

What could the discomfort experienced during ESWL session be related to?

A. the energy density of the shock waves as they pass through the skin

B. the size of the focal point

C. a & b

D. none of the above

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4

What is (are) the indication(s) of hospitalization of ureteral stone patients?

A. steinstrasse

B. a stone in ureterocele

C. fever, leucocytosis, pain

D. brushite stones

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4

ESWL in pediatric patients is characterized by all of the following, EXCEPT:

A. often need sedation or anesthesia

B. vesico-ureteral reflux must be excluded

C. pediatrics have a higher clearance rate of stones when compared to adults

D. safety measures must be taken to avoid lung contusions

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4

What does the treatment of hyperuricemia with urate stones include?

A. oral potassium sodium hydrogen citrate granules

B. increase hydration

C. allopurinol

D. all of the above

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4

Which of the following factors, positively, affect lower calyceal stone clearance after ESWL?

A. short and wide infundibulum

B. large lower-pole infundibulo-pelvic angle

C. the adjunct usage of PCNL

D. all of the above

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4

What is the most appropriate antibiotic class for prophylaxis before urologic surgery?

A. aminoglycosides

B. macrolides

C. cephalosporins

D. fluoroquinolones

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4

Which of the following dietary advice is recommended for Ca.oxalate stone formers?

A. limit beef, chicken, pork, eggs, fish, shellfish, and other animal proteins

B. limit beans, nuts, chocolate, coffee, dark green vegetables, and soda

C. limit canned, packaged, and fast foods

D. limit milk, cheese, and other dairy products

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4

What is the principal defect in renal hypercalciuria?

A. impaired renal tubular calcium reabsorption

B. excessive glomerular leak of calcium

C. deficiency of the enzyme xanthine oxidase

D. hypercalcemia

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4

What is false concerning the use of antibiotics in stone patients?

A. they are mandatory when urine shows ≥ 10 WBCs/hpf in symptomatic patients

B. they aim at treating pyonephrosis and urosepsis

C. they should cover Escherichia coli and Staphylococcus, Enterobacter, Proteus, and Klebsiella species

D. All of the above

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4

What is true concerning the use of intravenous fluids in renal colic cases?

A. patients should be given large amounts of fluids to hasten stones passage

B. fluids are given to keep the patient well hydrated

C. the recommended regimen is 2 L of ringer lactate over 2 hours

D. fluids are contraindicated if desmopressin (DDAVP) was given

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4

What is the proper sequence of the following stones when ordered from most radiopaque to most radiolucent as they appear on plain Xray film?

A. Ca.oxalate, Ca.phosphate, Na.urate, cystine

B. Ca.phosphate, Ca.oxalate, cystine, Na.urate

C. Ca.oxalate, Ca.phosphate, cystine, Na.urate

D. Ca.phosphate, Ca.oxalate, Na.urate, cystine