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1000+ Airport Engineering MCQ for IBPS PO [Solved]

Thursday 9th of March 2023

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1. Assertion A: The width of a taxiway is smaller than the runway width. Reason R: The speed of the aircraft on a taxiway is greater than that on runway. Select your answer based on coding system given below
A. Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R is true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true
Answer : C
2. For Class A Air port the difference of reduced levels of higher and lower edges of the conical surface, is
A. 25 m
B. 50 m
C. 75 m
D. 100 m
Answer : D
3. For the taxiways, the following statement is true
A. The maximum longitudinal grade is 3%
B. The permissible rate of change of grade is 1%
C. The permissible transverse grade is 1.5%
D. All the above
Answer : D
4. Which of the following is an example of failure in flexible pavements?
A. Alligator cracking
B. Mud pumping
C. Warping cracks
D. Shrinkage cracks
Answer : A
5. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
A. L.O.M. is installed at 7.2 km from the threshold
B. L.M.M. is installed at 1.0 km from the threshold
C. Localizer antenna is installed at 300 m from the other end of the runway
D. Glide slope antenna is installed at the centre of the runway about 150 m on one side
Answer : D
6. According to ICAO, all markings on the runways are
A. Yellow
B. White
C. Black
D. Red
Answer : B
7. For the proposed runway stated in if the aerodrome reference temperature is 17°.2, the net designed length of the runway is
A. 2716 m
B. 2816 m
C. 2916 m
D. 3016 m
Answer : B
8. The lift off distance is the distance along the centre of the runway between the starting point and
A. End of the runway
B. End of stop-way
C. Point where air craft becomes air borne
D. Point where air craft attains a height of 10.7 m
Answer : A
9. The strength of winds is measured with the help of
A. Beaufort scale
B. Wind indicator
C. Barometers
D. None of these
Answer : A
10. Maximum gross takeoff weight of an aircraft is
A. Equal to the maximum structural landing weight
B. Less than the maximum structural landing weight
C. More than the maximum structural landing weight
D. Equal to the empty operating weight plus the payload
Answer : C
11. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
A. Air screw converts the energy given by the engine into speed
B. The propellers which are driven by turbine engines, are technically called turboprops
C. The aircrafts which obtain the thrust directly from turbine engine, are called turbo-jets
D. All the above
Answer : D
12. For the proposed air port, the survey project provides
A. Master plan
B. Topographic plan
C. Grading plan
D. All the above
Answer : D
13. The size of landing area for multi engine helicopters operating under 1 FR conditions is
A. 22.5 m × 22.5 m
B. 30 m × 30 m
C. 22.5 m × 30 m
D. 60 m × 120 m
Answer : D
14. The length of a runway under standard atmospheric conditions is 1800 m. If the actual reduced level of the site is 1200 m, the design length of the runway is
A. 2360 m
B. 2460 m
C. 2560 m
D. 2660 m
Answer : C
15. Beaufort scale is used to determine
A. Strength of winds
B. Direction of winds
C. Height of air-crafts
D. None of these
Answer : A
16. The capacity of parallel runway pattern depends upon
A. Weather conditions and navigational aids available
B. Lateral spacing between two runways and weather conditions
C. Lateral spacing between two runways and navigational aids available
D. Lateral spacing between two runways, weather conditions and navigational aids available.
Answer : D
17. According to I.C.A.O. the slope of transitional surface at right angles to the centre line of runway, is kept
A. 1 in 4
B. 1 in 5
C. 1 in 6
D. 1 in 7
Answer : D
18. Castor angle is defined as the angle
A. Formed by the longitudinal axis of the aircraft and the direction of movement of the nose gear
B. Between the direction of wind and the longitudinal axis of the runway
C. Between the true speed of the aircraft and the crosswind component
D. Between the horizontal and the fuselage axis
Answer : A
19. The distance between main gears is 10 m, and the distance of nose gear from centre of main gears is 30 m. If the angle of turning is 60°, the distance of centre of rotation from the nearer main gear, is
A. 12.30 m
B. 11.30 m
C. 10.30 m
D. 9.30 m
Answer : A
20. The slope of the transitional surface for A, B and C type of runway shall be
A. 1 : 5
B. 1 : 7
C. 1 : 10
D 1 : 12
Answer : B
21. As per ICAO, for A, B, and C type of airports, maximum effective, transverse and longitudinal grades in percentage respectively are
A. 1.0, 1.5 and 1.5
B. 1.0, 1.5 and 2.0
C. 1.5, 1.5 and 2.0
D. 2.0, 2.0 and 2.0
Answer : A
22. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
A. Runway edge from the landing side, is called threshold
B. Localizer indicates to the pilot his position with respect to the proposed alignment
C. The glide slope indicates the correct angle of descent
D. All the above
Answer : D
23. According to I.C.A.O. all markings on the runways are painted white and on taxiways
A. Black
B. Red
C. Yellow
D. Green
Answer : C
24. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
A. Minimum turning radius of aircrafts decides the size of the apron and the radius of the curves at taxi-ends
B. Take off and landing distances for an aircraft, determine the minimum runway length
C. The length of the normal haul of the air craft decides the frequency of operation
D. All the above
Answer : D
25. The total length of a runway is 1000 m. The elevation at distance 0,200 m, 400 m, 600 m, 800 m and 1000 m are 100.0 m, 99.2 m, 101.0 m, 101.8 m, 101.4 m and 101.0 m respectively. The effective gradient of runway will be.
A. 0.10 %
B. 0.26 %
C. 0.43 %
D. 0.65 %
Answer : B
26. Consider the following statements regarding ICAO recommendation for correction to basic runway length
1. The basic runway length should be increased at the rate of 7 percent per 300 m rise in elevation above the mean sea level.
2. The basic runway length after having been corrected for elevation should be further increased at the rate of 1 percent for every 1°C rise in airport reference temperature above the standard atmospheric temperature at that elevation.
3. The runway length after having been corrected for elevation and temperature should be further increased at the rate of 20% for every 1 percent of effective gradient. Of these statements

A. 1 and 2 are correct
B. 2 and 3 are correct
C. 1 and 3 are correct
D. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
Answer : A
27. The air is blowing at a speed of 75 knots in the direction of the aircraft flying at a ground speed of 775 knots. The air speed of the aircraft, is
A. 775 knots
B. 75 knots
C. 850 knots
D. 675 knots
Answer : D
28. The threshold markings are
A. 4 m wide
B. 1 m clear space between adjacent
C. Placed symmetrically on either side of the runway centre line
D. All the above
Answer : D
29. According to the International Civil Aviation Organisation (I.C.A.O.) the strength of runway pavements, have been coded by
A. Seven English alphabets
B. Last Seven English alphabets
C. First Seven English alphabets
D. First seven numbers
Answer : D
30. According to I.C.A.O. the recommended length of air ports is decided on
A. Sea level elevation
B. Standard sea level temperature (15°C)
C. Effective gradient percentage
D. All the above
Answer : D
31. From the end of an instrumental runway, the approach surface rises outwards
A. 1 in 20
B. 1 in 30
C. 1 in 40
D. 1 in 50
Answer : D
32. Effective length of a runway is the distance between
A. Ends of the runway
B. Point of intersection of the obstruction clearance line and the extended plane of the runway surface, and the other end of the runway
C. Point of intersection of the glide path and the extended plane of the runway surface and the other end of the runway
D. Ends of the clear way on either side
Answer : B
33. According to the International Civil Aviation Organisation (I.C.A.O.), the runway lengths of aerodromes, have been coded by
A. Seven English alphabets
B. Last Seven English alphabets
C. First Seven English alphabets
D. First seven natural numbers
Answer : C
34. The runway orientation is made so that landing and takeoff are
A. Against the wind direction
B. Along the wind direction
C. Perpendicular to wind direction
D. None of these
Answer : A
35. As per ICAO recommendation, the rate of change of longitudinal gradient per 30 m length of vertical curve for A and B type of airports is limited to a maximum of
A. 0.1 %
B. 0.2 %
C. 0.3 %
D. 0.4 %
Answer : A
36. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
A. The basic length of a runway is increased at a rate of 7% per 300 m of elevation of M.S.L.
B. The standard temperature at the site is obtained by reducing the standard sea level temperature of 15°C at the rate of 6.5°C per 1000 m rise in elevation
C. The aerodrome reference temperature is the monthly mean of the mean daily temperature for the hottest month of the year
D. All the above
Answer : D
37. The meteorological condition which influences the size and location of an air port is
A. Atmosphere pressure
B. Air density
C. Reduced level
D. All the above
Answer : D
38. Assertion A : Airport capacity during IFR conditions is usually less than that during VFR conditions. Reason R: During clear weather condition (VFR), the aircrafts on final approach to runway can be spaced closer during poor visibility conditions. Select your answer based on the coding system given below:
A. Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R is true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true
Answer : A
39. The height of the pilot's eye above the runway surface is assumed
A. 1 m
B. 3 m
C. 4 m
D. 5 m
Answer : B
40. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
A. The distance between the points of intersection of the extreme tangents to the transition curve is kept greater than 7500 m × sum of grade changes at the point of intersection
B. The rate of change of grade is limited to 0.3% per 30 m length of the curve
C. According to I.C.A.O. the maximum longitudinal gradient along a runway is limited to 1.5%
D. All the above
Answer : D
41. The main disadvantage of angle nose out parking configuration of aircraft is that the
A. Aircraft rear loading door is far away from terminal building.
B. Hot blast is directed towards the terminal building
C. Overall apron area required is more
D. All the above
Answer : B
42. In an airport, if 4 groups of 5 gates each located well separated are considered for traffic and the future to present traffic ratio is 3, then the total requirement of future gates will be
A. 32
B. 36
C. 44
D. 68
Answer : B
43. As per ICAO, the minimum basic runway length for A and E type of airport will be
A. 1500 m and 600 m
B. 2100 m and 750 m
C. 1500 m and 750 m
D. 2100 m and 600 m
Answer : D
44. An aircraft is flying in an atmosphere of 30°C with a speed of 1260 km ph. Its speed is known as
A. Subsonic
B. Sonic
C. Super-sonic
D. Mach
Answer : B
45. Which of the following factors are taken into account for estimating the runway length required for aircraft landing?
1. Normal maximum temperature
2. Airport elevation
3. Maximum landing weight
4. Effective runway gradient Select the correct answer using the codes given below Codes:

A. 1, 2, 3 and 4
B. 1, 3 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 1, 2 and 4
Answer : D
46. The maximum length and pavement strength of the runway is that of
A. A 1
B. B 2
C. B 3
D. G 7
Answer : A
47. The bearing of the longest line of a wind rose is S 45° E, the bearing of the runway will be numbered
A. 135°
B. 31
C. 13
D. Both (c) and (d)
Answer : D
48. The centre to centre spacing of heliport lighting along the periphery of landing and takeoff area should be
A. 2.5 m
B. 5.0 m
C. 7.5 m
D. 10.0 m
Answer : C
49. Calm period is the percentage of time during which wind intensity is less than
A. 4.8 kmph
B. 6.4 kmph
C. 8.0 kmph
D. 9.6 kmph
Answer : B
50. Assertion A : The ratio of arriving and departing aircrafts influences the airport Capacity: Reason R : Landing operation is generally given priority over the taking off operation. Select your answer based on the coding system given below:
A. Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R is true and R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true
Answer : A

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