1000+ Airport Engineering MCQ for SBI PO [Solved]

1. Zero fuel weight of an aircraft is:
A. Equal to empty operating weight
B. Equal to maximum landing weight
C. Less than empty operating weight
D. Equal to sum of empty operating weight and the maximum pay load
Answer : D

2. In instrument landing system
A. L.O.M. and L.M.M. are installed on one side and Localizer antenna on the other side
B. L.O.M. and Localizer are installed on one side and L.M.M. on the other side
C. Localizer and L.M.M. are installed on one side and L.O.M. on the other side
D. None of these
Answer : A

3. For supersonic transport aircraft, the minimum turning radius of taxiway is
A. 60 m
B. 120 m
C. 180 m
D. 240 m
Answer : C

4. The bearing of the runway at threshold is 290°, the runway number is
A. N 70° W
B. 290°
C. 29°
D. W 20° N
Answer : C

5. Which of the following is an example of failure in flexible pavements?
A. Alligator cracking
B. Mud pumping
C. Warping cracks
D. Shrinkage cracks
Answer : A

6. The maximum length and pavement strength of the runway is that of
A. A 1
B. B 2
C. B 3
D. G 7
Answer : A

7. Assertion A : The ratio of arriving and departing aircrafts influences the airport Capacity: Reason R : Landing operation is generally given priority over the taking off operation. Select your answer based on the coding system given below:
A. Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R is true and R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true
Answer : A

8. For night landing, the thresholds are lighted
A. Green
B. Red
C. White
D. Yellow
Answer : A

9. A gradient of + 0.08% is followed by a gradient of - 0.07%. If the permissible rate of change of grade is 0.003 per 30 metres, the length of the transition curve, is
A. 150 m
B. 140 m
C. 160 m
D. 175 m
Answer : A

10. The centre to centre spacing of heliport lighting along the periphery of landing and takeoff area should be
A. 2.5 m
B. 5.0 m
C. 7.5 m
D. 10.0 m
Answer : C

11. An airport has 4 gates. If the weighted average gate occupancy time is 30 minutes and gate utilisation factor is 0.5, then the capacity of the gate will be
A. 1 aircraft per hour
B. 2 aircrafts per hour
C. 4 aircrafts per hour
D. 16 aircrafts per hour
Answer : C

12. Airport elevation is the reduced level above M.S.L. of
A. Control tower
B. Highest point of the landing area
C. Lowest point of the landing area
D. None of these
Answer : B

13. The cruising speed of the aircraft is 500 kmph. If there is a head wind of 50 kmph, then the air speed and ground speed of the aircraft respectively will be
A. 450 kmph and 500 kmph
B. 500 kmph and 450 kmph
C. 450 kmph and 450 kmph
D. 500 kmph and 500 kmph
Answer : A

14. The length of a runway under standard atmospheric conditions is 1800 m. If the actual reduced level of the site is 1200 m, the design length of the runway is
A. 2360 m
B. 2460 m
C. 2560 m
D. 2660 m
Answer : C

15. For the proposed air port, the survey project provides
A. Master plan
B. Topographic plan
C. Grading plan
D. All the above
Answer : D

16. According to the International Civil Aviation Organisation (I.C.A.O.), the runway lengths of aerodromes, have been coded by
A. Seven English alphabets
B. Last Seven English alphabets
C. First Seven English alphabets
D. First seven natural numbers
Answer : C

17. The distance between main gears is 10 m, and the distance of nose gear from centre of main gears is 30 m. If the angle of turning is 60°, the distance of centre of rotation from the nearer main gear, is
A. 12.30 m
B. 11.30 m
C. 10.30 m
D. 9.30 m
Answer : A

18. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
A. The distance between the points of intersection of the extreme tangents to the transition curve is kept greater than 7500 m × sum of grade changes at the point of intersection
B. The rate of change of grade is limited to 0.3% per 30 m length of the curve
C. According to I.C.A.O. the maximum longitudinal gradient along a runway is limited to 1.5%
D. All the above
Answer : D

19. The threshold markings are
A. 4 m wide
B. 1 m clear space between adjacent
C. Placed symmetrically on either side of the runway centre line
D. All the above
Answer : D

20. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
A. F.I.R. stands for flight information regions
B. Radius of control area is 160 km
C. Radius of control zone is 40 km
D. All the above
Answer : D

21. The maximum value of the angle of turning of the nose gear large jet aircrafts, is limited to
A. 20°
B. 30°
C. 45°
D. 60°
Answer : D

22. As per ICAO recommendation, minimum width of safety area for instrumental runway should be
A. 78 m
B. 150 m
C. 300 m
D. 450 m
Answer : C

23. As per ICAO, for A, B, and C type of airports, maximum effective, transverse and longitudinal grades in percentage respectively are
A. 1.0, 1.5 and 1.5
B. 1.0, 1.5 and 2.0
C. 1.5, 1.5 and 2.0
D. 2.0, 2.0 and 2.0
Answer : A

24. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
A. Channelization of pavement is caused by constant use of tri-cycle gears of aircraft
B. Blast pads are used over cohesionless soils to resist erosion due to tremendous speed of the jet blast
C. Over-run areas of at least 300 m length on either side of the runway are provided
D. None of these
Answer : D

25. The length of runway is increased per 300 m rise above M.S.L.
A. 3 %
B. 4 %
C. 5 %
D. 7 %
Answer : D

26. The runway length after correcting for elevation and temperature is 2845 m. If the effective gradient on runway is 0.5 percent then the revised runway length will be
A. 2845 m
B. 2910 m
C. 3030 m
D. 3130 m
Answer : C

27. International Civil Aviation Organisation (I.C.A.O.) was set up at Montreal (Canada), in
A. 1929
B. 1939
C. 1947
D. 1950
Answer : C

28. Effective length of a runway is the distance between
A. Ends of the runway
B. Point of intersection of the obstruction clearance line and the extended plane of the runway surface, and the other end of the runway
C. Point of intersection of the glide path and the extended plane of the runway surface and the other end of the runway
D. Ends of the clear way on either side
Answer : B

29. As per ICAO, the minimum basic runway length for A and E type of airport will be
A. 1500 m and 600 m
B. 2100 m and 750 m
C. 1500 m and 750 m
D. 2100 m and 600 m
Answer : D

30. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
A. Landing speed is directly proportional to the wing loading
B. Wing loading remaining constant, the take off distance is directly proportional to the powder loading
C. Neither (a) nor (b)
D. Both (a) and (b)
Answer : D

31. Calm period is the percentage of time during which wind intensity is less than
A. 4.8 kmph
B. 6.4 kmph
C. 8.0 kmph
D. 9.6 kmph
Answer : B

32. The meteorological condition which influences the size and location of an air port is
A. Atmosphere pressure
B. Air density
C. Reduced level
D. All the above
Answer : D

33. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
A. The basic length of a runway is increased at a rate of 7% per 300 m of elevation of M.S.L.
B. The standard temperature at the site is obtained by reducing the standard sea level temperature of 15°C at the rate of 6.5°C per 1000 m rise in elevation
C. The aerodrome reference temperature is the monthly mean of the mean daily temperature for the hottest month of the year
D. All the above
Answer : D

34. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
A. The speed of the aircraft relative to the ground, is called cruising speed
B. The speed of the aircraft relative to wind, is called air speed
C. When wind is blowing the direction of the flight, air speed is less than cruising speed
D. All the above
Answer : D

35. The landing and takeoff of the air craft is made against the direction of wind. In no case the centre line of the runway should make an angle with the wind direction exceeding
A. 10°
B. 20°
C. 30°
D. 40°
Answer : C

36. The strength of winds is measured with the help of
A. Beaufort scale
B. Wind indicator
C. Barometers
D. None of these
Answer : A

37. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
A. Tar concrete pavements are suitable if fuel spillage occurs
B. Rubberised tar concrete hot blast as well as spillage
C. Epoxy asphalt concrete sets in very small time
D. All the above
Answer : D

38. The air is blowing at a speed of 75 knots in the direction of the aircraft flying at a ground speed of 775 knots. The air speed of the aircraft, is
A. 775 knots
B. 75 knots
C. 850 knots
D. 675 knots
Answer : D

39. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
A. Minimum turning radius of aircrafts decides the size of the apron and the radius of the curves at taxi-ends
B. Take off and landing distances for an aircraft, determine the minimum runway length
C. The length of the normal haul of the air craft decides the frequency of operation
D. All the above
Answer : D

40. The main disadvantage of angle nose out parking configuration of aircraft is that the
A. Aircraft rear loading door is far away from terminal building.
B. Hot blast is directed towards the terminal building
C. Overall apron area required is more
D. All the above
Answer : B

41. The minimum width of clearway is
A. 50 m
B. 100 m
C. 150 m
D. 250 m
Answer : C

42. To cope up high temperature of 196°C, the taxi ways and aprons are constructed with
A. Asphaltic concrete
B. Rubberised tar concrete
C. Plain concrete
D. All the above
Answer : D

43. The best direction of a runway is along the direction of
A. Longest line on wind rose diagram
B. Shortest line on the wind rose diagram
C. Line clear of wind rose diagram
D. None of these
Answer : A

44. The thickness design of the pavement, is decided on the load carried by
A. Main gears
B. Nose wheel
C. Tail wheel
D. All the above
Answer : A

45. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
A. Approximate geometric centre of the landing area, is called air port reference point
B. The boundaries of horizontal surface and conical surface are marked with reference to air port reference point
C. The location of the air port on a map is the position of air port reference point
D. All the above
Answer : D

46. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
A. Runway edge from the landing side, is called threshold
B. Localizer indicates to the pilot his position with respect to the proposed alignment
C. The glide slope indicates the correct angle of descent
D. All the above
Answer : D

47. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
A. Approach zone survey is carried out to determine the elevations of the protruding obstructions above horizontal, conical and transitional surfaces
B. The wind data of an air port is depicted in the form of a chart known as wind rose
C. The landing and takeoff of the air craft is made against the wind direction
D. All the above
Answer : D

48. The depressions and undulations in the pavement, are caused due to
A. Improper compaction of sub-grade
B. Impact of heavy wheel loads
C. Punching effect
D. All the above
Answer : D

49. The length of runway under standard conditions is 2000 m. The elevation of airport site is 300 m. Its reference temperature is 33.05°C. If the runway is to be constructed with an effective gradient of 0.25 percent, the corrected runway length will be
A. 2500 m
B. 2600 m
C. 2700 m
D. 2800 m
Answer : C

50. The reduced levels of the ends A and B of a runway are 3025 m and 3035 m and that of its mid-point is 3015 m. The reduced level of the horizontal surface, is
A. 3070 m
B. 3060 m
C. 3075 m
D. 3015 m
Answer : C