1000+ Airport Engineering MCQ for IBPS RRB [Solved]

1. The total length of a runway is 1000 m. The elevation at distance 0,200 m, 400 m, 600 m, 800 m and 1000 m are 100.0 m, 99.2 m, 101.0 m, 101.8 m, 101.4 m and 101.0 m respectively. The effective gradient of runway will be.
A. 0.10 %
B. 0.26 %
C. 0.43 %
D. 0.65 %
Answer : B

2. The engine failure case for determining the basic runway length may require
A. Only clearway
B. Only stop way
C. Either a clearway or a stop-way
D. Either a clearway or a stop-way or both
Answer : D

3. The slope of the obstruction clearance line from the boundary of the heliport should be
A. 1 : 2
B. 1 : 5
C. 1 : 8
D. 1 : 40
Answer : C

4. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
A. F.I.R. stands for flight information regions
B. Radius of control area is 160 km
C. Radius of control zone is 40 km
D. All the above
Answer : D

5. According to ICAO, all markings on the runways are
A. Yellow
B. White
C. Black
D. Red
Answer : B

6. As per ICAO recommendation, minimum width of safety area for instrumental runway should be
A. 78 m
B. 150 m
C. 300 m
D. 450 m
Answer : C

7. As per ICAO, for airports serving big aircrafts, the crosswind component should not exceed
A. 15 kmph
B. 25 kmph
C. 35 kmph
D. 45 kmph
Answer : C

8. In an airport, if 4 groups of 5 gates each located well separated are considered for traffic and the future to present traffic ratio is 3, then the total requirement of future gates will be
A. 32
B. 36
C. 44
D. 68
Answer : B

9. The bearing of the runway at threshold is 290°, the runway number is
A. N 70° W
B. 290°
C. 29°
D. W 20° N
Answer : C

10. In instrument landing system
A. L.O.M. and L.M.M. are installed on one side and Localizer antenna on the other side
B. L.O.M. and Localizer are installed on one side and L.M.M. on the other side
C. Localizer and L.M.M. are installed on one side and L.O.M. on the other side
D. None of these
Answer : A

11. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
A. L.O.M. is installed at 7.2 km from the threshold
B. L.M.M. is installed at 1.0 km from the threshold
C. Localizer antenna is installed at 300 m from the other end of the runway
D. Glide slope antenna is installed at the centre of the runway about 150 m on one side
Answer : D

12. Speed of
A. Sound at 0°C is 1190 kmph
B. Sound varies 2.4 kmph per degree centigrade rise in temperature
C. Sound at 0°C is called one Mach
D. All the above
Answer : D

13. The maximum length and pavement strength of the runway is that of
A. A 1
B. B 2
C. B 3
D. G 7
Answer : A

14. An airport has 4 gates. If the weighted average gate occupancy time is 30 minutes and gate utilisation factor is 0.5, then the capacity of the gate will be
A. 1 aircraft per hour
B. 2 aircrafts per hour
C. 4 aircrafts per hour
D. 16 aircrafts per hour
Answer : C

15. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
A. The distance between the points of intersection of the extreme tangents to the transition curve is kept greater than 7500 m × sum of grade changes at the point of intersection
B. The rate of change of grade is limited to 0.3% per 30 m length of the curve
C. According to I.C.A.O. the maximum longitudinal gradient along a runway is limited to 1.5%
D. All the above
Answer : D

16. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
A. The speed of the aircraft relative to the ground, is called cruising speed
B. The speed of the aircraft relative to wind, is called air speed
C. When wind is blowing the direction of the flight, air speed is less than cruising speed
D. All the above
Answer : D

17. For Class A Air port the difference of reduced levels of higher and lower edges of the conical surface, is
A. 25 m
B. 50 m
C. 75 m
D. 100 m
Answer : D

18. Two single runways may be arranged so as to have
A. L-shape
B. T-shape
C. X-shape
D. All the above
Answer : D

19. The depressions and undulations in the pavement, are caused due to
A. Improper compaction of sub-grade
B. Impact of heavy wheel loads
C. Punching effect
D. All the above
Answer : D

20. If lift off distance of an craft is 2000 m, the clear way at the end of the runway should not be less than
A. 145 m
B. 152.5 m
C. 162.5 m
D. 172.5 m
Answer : D

21. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
A. Minimum turning radius of aircrafts decides the size of the apron and the radius of the curves at taxi-ends B. Take off and landing distances for an aircraft, determine the minimum runway length
C. The length of the normal haul of the air craft decides the frequency of operation
D. All the above
Answer : D

22. The runway length after correcting for elevation and temperature is 2845 m. If the effective gradient on runway is 0.5 percent then the revised runway length will be
A. 2845 m
B. 2910 m
C. 3030 m
D. 3130 m
Answer : C

23. As per ICAO, the minimum basic runway length for A and E type of airport will be
A. 1500 m and 600 m
B. 2100 m and 750 m
C. 1500 m and 750 m
D. 2100 m and 600 m
Answer : D

24. Maximum gross takeoff weight of an aircraft is
A. Equal to the maximum structural landing weight
B. Less than the maximum structural landing weight
C. More than the maximum structural landing weight
D. Equal to the empty operating weight plus the payload
Answer : C

25. The reduced level of the proposed site of an air port is 2500 m above M.S.L. If the recommended length by I.C.A.O. for the runway at sea level is 2500 m, the required length of the runway is
A. 2500 m
B. 3725 m
C. 3000 m
D. 3250 m
Answer : B

26. In Intrumental landing system, the middle markers are located
A. Along the extended centre line of runway end
B. About 1 km. ahead of the runway threshold
C. At the runway threshold
D. About 7 km. ahead of the runway threshold
Answer : B

27. To cope up high temperature of 196°C, the taxi ways and aprons are constructed with
A. Asphaltic concrete
B. Rubberised tar concrete
C. Plain concrete
D. All the above
Answer : D

28. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
A. Air screw converts the energy given by the engine into speed
B. The propellers which are driven by turbine engines, are technically called turboprops
C. The aircrafts which obtain the thrust directly from turbine engine, are called turbo-jets
D. All the above
Answer : D

29. Calm period is the percentage of time during which wind intensity is less than
A. 4.8 kmph
B. 6.4 kmph
C. 8.0 kmph
D. 9.6 kmph
Answer : B

30. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
A. The centre line of the approach area coincides with that of the runway
B. Approach areas are measured in horizontal surfaces
C. Obstruction clearance surface and approach surface are same
D. All the above
Answer : D

31. The width and interval of transverse centre line bars along the extended centre line of runway, in approach lighting system are
A. 3 m and 30 m
B. 4.2 m and 30 m
C. 4.2 m and 50 m
D. 3 m and 45 m
Answer : B

32. Consider the following statements regarding ICAO recommendation for correction to basic runway length
1. The basic runway length should be increased at the rate of 7 percent per 300 m rise in elevation above the mean sea level.
2. The basic runway length after having been corrected for elevation should be further increased at the rate of 1 percent for every 1°C rise in airport reference temperature above the standard atmospheric temperature at that elevation.
3. The runway length after having been corrected for elevation and temperature should be further increased at the rate of 20% for every 1 percent of effective gradient. Of these statements
A. 1 and 2 are correct
B. 2 and 3 are correct
C. 1 and 3 are correct
D. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
Answer : A

33. As per ICAO, for A, B, and C type of airports, maximum effective, transverse and longitudinal grades in percentage respectively are
A. 1.0, 1.5 and 1.5
B. 1.0, 1.5 and 2.0
C. 1.5, 1.5 and 2.0
D. 2.0, 2.0 and 2.0
Answer : A

34. Assertion A : The ratio of arriving and departing aircrafts influences the airport Capacity: Reason R : Landing operation is generally given priority over the taking off operation. Select your answer based on the coding system given below:
A. Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R is true and R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true
Answer : A

35. For the proposed air port, the survey project provides
A. Master plan
B. Topographic plan
C. Grading plan
D. All the above
Answer : D

36. The length of runway under standard conditions is 2000 m. The elevation of airport site is 300 m. Its reference temperature is 33.05°C. If the runway is to be constructed with an effective gradient of 0.25 percent, the corrected runway length will be
A. 2500 m
B. 2600 m
C. 2700 m
D. 2800 m
Answer : C

37. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
A. Runway edge from the landing side, is called threshold
B. Localizer indicates to the pilot his position with respect to the proposed alignment
C. The glide slope indicates the correct angle of descent
D. All the above
Answer : D

38. The best direction of a runway is along the direction of
A. Longest line on wind rose diagram
B. Shortest line on the wind rose diagram
C. Line clear of wind rose diagram
D. None of these
Answer : A

39. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
A. Channelization of pavement is caused by constant use of tri-cycle gears of aircraft
B. Blast pads are used over cohesionless soils to resist erosion due to tremendous speed of the jet blast
C. Over-run areas of at least 300 m length on either side of the runway are provided
D. None of these
Answer : D

40. Consider the following statements: Wind rose diagram is used for the purposes of
1. Runway orientation
2. Estimating the runway capacity
3. Geometric design of holding apron of these statements
A. 1 and 2 are correct
B. 2 and 3 are correct
C. 1 and 3 are correct
D. 1 alone is correct
Answer : D

41. The slope of the transitional surface for A, B and C type of runway shall be
A. 1 : 5
B. 1 : 7
C. 1 : 10
D. 1 : 12
Answer : B

42. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
A. Landing speed is directly proportional to the wing loading
B. Wing loading remaining constant, the take off distance is directly proportional to the powder loading
C. Neither (a) nor (b)
D. Both (a) and (b)
Answer : D

43. Effective length of a runway is the distance between
A. Ends of the runway
B. Point of intersection of the obstruction clearance line and the extended plane of the runway surface, and the other end of the runway
C. Point of intersection of the glide path and the extended plane of the runway surface and the other end of the runway
D. Ends of the clear way on either side
Answer : B

44. Conical surface of the approach area rises outwards
A. 1 in 10
B. 1 in 15
C. 1 in 20
D. 1 in 25
Answer : C

45. The distance between main gears is 10 m, and the distance of nose gear from centre of main gears is 30 m. If the angle of turning is 60°, the distance of centre of rotation from the nearer main gear, is
A. 12.30 m
B. 11.30 m
C. 10.30 m
D. 9.30 m
Answer : A

46. The length of clear zone for none instrument runway of a small aircraft is
A. 150 m
B. 300 m
C. 600 m
D. 750 m
Answer : B

47. If the width of the approach area near the runway end is 150 m, the width of the approach area at a distance of 3 kilometres from runway end will be
A. 1500 m
B. 1200 m
C. 1000 m
D. 800 m
Answer : B

48. As per ICAO recommendation, the rate of change of longitudinal gradient per 30 m length of vertical curve for A and B type of airports is limited to a maximum of
A. 0.1 %
B. 0.2 %
C. 0.3 %
D. 0.4 %
Answer : A

49. An aircraft is flying in an atmosphere of 30°C with a speed of 1260 km ph. Its speed is known as
A. Subsonic
B. Sonic
C. Super-sonic
D. Mach
Answer : B

50. A gradient of + 0.08% is followed by a gradient of - 0.07%. If the permissible rate of change of grade is 0.003 per 30 metres, the length of the transition curve, is
A. 150 m
B. 140 m
C. 160 m
D. 175 m
Answer : A