1000+ Senile enlargement of the prostate Multiple Choice Question Answer [Solved]

1. What is the initial response of the detrusor muscle to obstruction?
A. increased intravesical pressure
B. increased detrusor pressure
C. increase collagen deposition in the detrusor
D. detrusor smooth muscle hypertrophy
Answer : A

2. TURP syndrome is more likely to occur when:
A. the irrigating fluid is at a pressure exceeding 10 mm Hg
B. the prostate volume is > 45 cc
C. the resection time is > 90 minutes
D. all of the above
Answer : B

3. What is the likelihood that PSA level in men with acute urinary retention due to urethral stricture will decrease after catheterization?
A. never
B. unlikely
C. likely
D. always
Answer : D

4. Which of the following is NOT classified as a complicated LUTS?
A. LUTS with neurologic disease
B. LUTS with post-void dribble
C. LUTS with suspicious DRE
D. LUTS with hematuria
Answer : D

5. What is (are) true concerning IPSS questionnaire?
A. it focuses on last month`s symptoms
B. scores of moderate symptoms suggest surgical treatment if the patient`s quality of life was poor
C. it has been validated and translated to many languages
D. all of the above
Answer : D

6. To achieve better hemostasis in prostate laser surgery, what is the ideal wavelength that is easily absorbed by hemoglobin?
A. 532 nm
B. 694 nm
C. 755 nm
D. 1064 nm
Answer : A

7. Preferably, what is the last part of the prostate to be removed while performing TURP?
A. bladder neck
B. apex
C. median lobe
D. para-collecular
Answer : B

8. In BPH patients, total PSA level correlates to:
A. the glandular component of the prostate
B. the IPSS questionnaire points
C. the PVR
D. the transitional zone volume
Answer : A

9. Prostatic nodules palpated on DRE might indicate:
A. tuberculous prostatitis
B. prostatic cancer
C. inspissated prostatic abscess
D. any of the above
Answer : D

10. What is (are) the favorite criterion (criteria) to prescribe 5?- reductase inhibitors for BPH cases?
A. PSA > 1.5 ng/dL
B. prostate volume > 40 ml
C. IPSS > 19
D. a & b
Answer : D

11. What is true concerning epithelial and stromal cells in BPH?
A. there is an increase in the number of epithelial and stromal cells
B. there is an increase in the size of epithelial and stromal cells
C. in BPH, epithelial to stromal cells ratio is 1:2
D. all of the above
Answer : A

12. c. each centimeter over the normal 2.5-cm prostate urethral length equates
A. an additional 15 g in prostate weight
B. each centimeter over the normal 1.5-cm prostate urethral length equates
C. an additional 5 g in prostate weight
D. . When comparing suprapubic to retropubic prostatectomy for removing prostatic adenoma, the former allows:
Answer : A

13. PSA value has a strong correlation with:
A. IPSS
B. post void residual
C. prostate volume
D. Q-max at uroflowmetry
Answer : C

14. What is false regarding BPH genetics?
A. BPH is an inheritable and progressive disease
B. familial BPH presents at an older age when compared to sporadic cases
C. approximately 90% of men in their 80s have histologic evidence of BPH
D. BPH tends to be more severe and progressive in black men when compared to whites
Answer : B

15. What is (are) the indication(s) to prescribe ?-adrenergic inhibitors for BPH patients?
A. peak flow rate of ? 12 mL/sec
B. prostate volume > 40 ml
C. PSA > 1.5 ng/dL
D. b & c
Answer : A

16. What is true regarding BPH and androgens?
A. as a man ages, the responsiveness of prostate cells to androgenic stimuli decreases
B. adrenal androgens have no role in BPH development
C. type-1 steroid 5 ?-reductase is functionally active in the hair follicle
D. all of the above
Answer : C

17. The probability of developing acute urinary retention is related to:
A. the neurological status of the patient
B. PVR
C. severity of obstructive LUTS
D. all of the above
Answer : D

18. TURP carries an incidence of retrograde ejaculation of:
A. 62 - 78%
B. 48 - 61%
C. 79 - 93%
D. 34 - 47%
Answer : C

19. What class(es) of medications decrease(s) IPSS questionnaire points?
A. calcium channel blockers
B. antihistamines
C. antidepressants
D. cold medications containing pseudoephedrine
Answer : A

20. Transurethral incision of the prostate (TUIP):
A. is only indicated in small prostates
B. complications are related to the amount of lost blood and removed chips
C. is a minimal procedure where no risk of rectal injury or retrograde ejaculation have been reported
D. it entails making 1 or 2 incisions along all prostate lobes xcept the apical
Answer : A

21. Open prostatectomy is preferred in treating BPH with:
A. sizable bladder stones
B. Hutch diverticulum
C. a suspicion of cancer
D. a & b
Answer : D

22. A 50% reduction of prostate size is expected after a 6-month therapy with:
A. alfuzosin
B. silodosin
C. finasteride
D. tamsulosin
Answer : C

23. Which statement best describes the natural history of BPH:
A. worsening of LUTS and BPH over time
B. patients die of other reasons before serious complications occur
C. physically, the space of prostatic fossa limits the gland enlargement
D. ultimately, the gland will degenerate and undergo apoptosis
Answer : B

24. The most serious drawback of anticholinergic drugs on BPH patients is:
A. renal insufficiency
B. urinary retention
C. dry mouth
D. painless hematuria
Answer : B

25. How to manage priapism that occurs during endoscopic surgery?
A. corporal aspiration
B. corpora injection with an ?-adrenergic agent
C. corpora injection with an ?-adrenergic blocker
D. no treatment required
Answer : B

26. a. management of concomitant Hutch diverticulum
A. removing small bladder stones
B. better access to prostatic fossa
C. technically, easier trigonization
D. . When comparing retropubic to suprapubic prostatectomy for removing prostatic adenoma, the former has the advantage of:
Answer : B

27. Smooth muscle tension in the prostate is mediated by which receptors?
A. ?1-a
B. ?1-b
C. ?2-a
D. ?2-b
Answer : A

28. What is (are) the possible complication(s) of prostate stents?
A. hematuria and infections
B. migration and encrustation of the stent
C. irritative urinary symptoms and painful ejaculation
D. all of the above
Answer : D

29. The most serious complication of TURP is:
A. damage to the internal sphincter
B. damage to the external sphincter
C. bladder perforation
D. damage to a ureteral orifice
Answer : A

30. On treating BPH, which procedure provides the best tissue preservation for pathological examination?
A. TURP
B. TUIP
C. HoLEP
D. HoLRP
Answer : C

31. Anticholinergic medications work best with BPH patients who have:
A. small prostate
B. mainly median lobe hypertrophy
C. history of urinary retention
D. mainly irritative symptoms
Answer : D

32. In an 80 yrs. diabetic man on insulin for 35 yrs.; what would be the proper sequence of developing the following obstructing BPH/LUTS?
A. frequency, over-flow incontinence, straining, retention
B. straining, frequency, over-flow incontinence, retention
C. straining, frequency, retention, over-flow incontinence
D. frequency, straining, retention, over-flow incontinence
Answer : D

33. What is false concerning the pathogenesis of BPH?
A. intra-prostatic levels of estrogen decrease in men with BPH
B. stimulation of the adrenergic nervous system results in a dynamic increase in prostatic urethral resistance
C. inflammation may play a role through cytokines to promote cell growth
D. hyperplasia occurs due to an imbalance between cell death and cell proliferation
Answer : D

34. What is the capsular perforation rate in prostate vaporization surgery?
A. 0.2 1%
B. 1.2 2.1%
C. 2.3 3.4%
D. 3.7 5.6%
Answer : D

35. An ED patient on low-dose tadalafil develops BPH. What medication should he avoid?
A. tamsulosin
B. alfuzosin
C. doxazosin
D. silodosin
Answer : C

36. Which drug reduces the incidence of prostate cancer by 23% with a small increase in high-grade tumor incidence?
A. cetrorelix
B. flutamide
C. dutasteride
D. zanoterone
Answer : B

37. What prostatic lobe(s) can be assessed during DRE?
A. anterior
B. median
C. left lateral
D. all of the above
Answer : C

38. When comparing HoLEP to open prostatectomy for a 70 g prostatic adenoma removal; what parameter goes in favor of the latter?
A. operation time
B. duration of in-hospital stay
C. amount of blood transfused
D. time to catheter removal
Answer : A

39. In BPH patients, which of the following measures reduces PSA value by one-half?
A. 2 weeks after performing prostatic urethral lift
B. 6-month treatment with 5?-reductase inhibitors
C. after placing a stent in the prostatic urethra
D. immediately after removing one-half of the prostate by TURP
Answer : B

40. What is false concerning TURP syndrome?
A. symptoms begin with a serum sodium of less than 120 mEq/L
B. the mortality is 2.7-5.8 %
C. manifestations rely on acute changes in the intravascular volume and plasma solute concentrations
D. the preferred height of irrigating fluid is 60 cm above the patient
Answer : B

41. a. small fibrous glands
A. the pesence of prostate cancer
B. previous prostatectomy
C. all of the above
D. . Robot-assisted laparoscopic prostatectomy for prostatic adenoma has the following advantage over TURP:
Answer : C

42. Which statement is false concerning transurethral microwave therapy (TUMT) for BPH treatment:
A. induces nerve degeneration in the prostate and tissue necrosis
B. frequently results in transient urinary retention
C. frequently leads to erectile dysfunction
D. the high-energy platform is superior to the low-energy with regard to clinical efficacy
Answer : C

43. A BPH patient presents with retention of urine. He is Catheterized. Later, he underwent TURP. When would the highest PSA value be?
A. before catheterization
B. after catheterization and before TURP
C. immediately after TURP
D. 2 weeks after TURP
Answer : C

44. Which statement is false regarding TURP syndrome?
A. occurs because of absorption of non-sodium-containing irrigating fluid
B. occurs only on using unipolar TURP
C. results in brain edema due to dilutional hyponatremia
D. positioning the patient in anti-Trendelenburg helps prevent the syndrome
Answer : D

45. What is false concerning IPSS questionnaire?
A. is specific for prostate symptom
B. is a seven-question, self-administered questionnaire that yields a total score that ranges from 0 to 35
C. a sum of 20 on IPSS scale is severe
D. it covers both voiding and storage symptomatology
Answer : A

46. What is (are) the indication(s) of upper urinary tract imaging in men with LUTS?
A. hematuria
B. recurrent urinary tract infection
C. renal insufficiency
D. all of the above
Answer : D

47. What drug prevents recurrent gross hematuria secondary to BPH?
A. enoxaparin
B. silodosin
C. finasteride
D. tolterodine
Answer : C

48. In BPH patients, follow up PSA is of value because:
A. it helps predict the response to 5?-reductase inhibitors
B. it monitors LUTS/BPH progression
C. BPH patients are at higher risk of developing prostate cancer
D. a & b
Answer : D

49. What is false concerning bladder and prostate histology in BPH?
A. obstruction results in bladder smooth muscle hypertrophy and myofibroblasts deposition
B. BPH occurs chiefly in the transitional zone and periurethral tissues
C. BPH microscopical changes begin in early thirties
D. histologic findings of chronic prostatitis are common in BPH
Answer : A

50. BPH/LUTS patients when present with mild creatinine elevation, are advised to do:
A. total and free PSA
B. renal ultrasonography
C. creatinine clearance
D. uroflowmetry
Answer : B