FCI Recruitment - Senile enlargement of the prostate 1000+ MCQ [Solved] PDF Download

1. What can NOT be assessed during DRE?
A. sacral cord integrity
B. pelvic hematoma
C. pelvic floor muscle tenderness
D. prostatic median lobe hypertrophy
Answer : D

2. A 55 yrs. male patient with familial BPH, IPSS 9, PSA 23ng/ml, prostate size 31 cc, PVR 54 cc, on watchful waiting management. Next step should be:
A. tamsulosin 0.8 mg
B. reassurance
C. repeat total and free PSA
D. diagnostic cystoscopy
Answer : C

3. What is (are) true concerning IPSS questionnaire?
A. it focuses on last month`s symptoms
B. scores of moderate symptoms suggest surgical treatment if the patient`s quality of life was poor
C. it has been validated and translated to many languages
D. all of the above
Answer : D

4. Open prostatectomy is preferred in treating BPH with:
A. sizable bladder stones
B. Hutch diverticulum
C. a suspicion of cancer
D. a & b
Answer : D

5. On measuring the prostate volume during endoscopy:
A. each centimeter over the normal 2-cm prostate urethral length equates
B. an additional 12 g in prostate weight
C. each centimeter over the normal 2.5-cm prostate urethral length equates
D. an additional 10 g in prostate weight
Answer : B

6. What is false regarding prostate embolization for BPH?
A. the aim is to occlude the internal iliac vessels
B. there is a considerable radiation risk during the procedure
C. bilateral embolization provides better results
D. eye protection is not required
Answer : A

7. What statement is true regarding post-void residual of urine (PVR)?
A. nearly all men have PVR of less than 12 ml
B. it predicts the outcome of surgical treatment
C. it correlates well with BPH/LUTS
D. it is diagnostic for bladder outlet obstruction
Answer : A

8. A BPH patient presents with retention of urine. He is Catheterized. Later, he underwent TURP. When would the highest PSA value be?
A. before catheterization
B. after catheterization and before TURP
C. immediately after TURP
D. 2 weeks after TURP
Answer : C

9. What is true regarding mirabegron, the ?3 agonist, in treating BPH?
A. achieves better results when combined with antimuscarinic
B. enhances detrusor contractility resulting in higher Q-max
C. enhance detrusor relaxation during bladder-filling phase
D. increases voiding pressure that poses risk on renal function
Answer : C

10. To achieve better hemostasis in prostate laser surgery, what is the ideal wavelength that is easily absorbed by hemoglobin?
A. 532 nm
B. 694 nm
C. 755 nm
D. 1064 nm
Answer : A

11. In men with obstructive BPH, what will NOT resolve after TURP?
A. bladder trabeculation
B. significant PVR
C. low peak flow rate
D. high IPSS
Answer : A

12. What is the capsular perforation rate in prostate vaporization surgery?
A. 0.2 1%
B. 1.2 2.1%
C. 2.3 3.4%
D. 3.7 5.6%
Answer : D

13. Which statement is false concerning transurethral microwave therapy (TUMT) for BPH treatment:
A. induces nerve degeneration in the prostate and tissue necrosis
B. frequently results in transient urinary retention
C. frequently leads to erectile dysfunction
D. the high-energy platform is superior to the low-energy with regard to clinical efficacy
Answer : C

14. What drug prevents recurrent gross hematuria secondary to BPH?
A. enoxaparin
B. silodosin
C. finasteride
D. tolterodine
Answer : C

15. a. ?-adrenergic blocker
A. combination of ?-adrenergic blocker and 5?-reductase inhibitor
B. watchful waiting
C. TURP
D. . What is the commonest cause of LUTS in men beyond middle age?
Answer : C

16. What is true concerning epithelial and stromal cells in BPH?
A. there is an increase in the number of epithelial and stromal cells
B. there is an increase in the size of epithelial and stromal cells
C. in BPH, epithelial to stromal cells ratio is 1:2
D. all of the above
Answer : A

17. In BPH patients, follow up PSA is of value because:
A. it helps predict the response to 5?-reductase inhibitors
B. it monitors LUTS/BPH progression
C. BPH patients are at higher risk of developing prostate cancer
D. a & b
Answer : D

18. Preferably, what is the last part of the prostate to be removed while performing TURP?
A. bladder neck
B. apex
C. median lobe
D. para-collecular
Answer : B

19. a. no risk of dilutional hyponatremia
A. operating on patients with multiple bladder diverticula
B. operating on patients who cannot flex their hips and/or knees
C. unfavorable tissue preservation for pathological examination
D. . What is (are) the contraindication(s) to open prostatectomy for prostatic adenoma?
Answer : D

20. Anticholinergic medications work bet with BPH patients who have:
A. small prostate
B. mainly median lobe hypertrophy
C. history of urinary retention
D. mainly irritative symptoms
Answer : D

21. IPSS decreases after successful TURP because:
A. PSA decreases
B. the prostate size decreases
C. the complaints resolve
D. the Q.O.L improves
Answer : C

22. What is (are) the indication(s) of upper urinary tract imaging in men with LUTS?
A. hematuria
B. recurrent urinary tract infection
C. renal insufficiency
D. all of the above
Answer : D

23. On treating BPH, which procedure provides the best tissue preservation for pathological examination?
A. TURP
B. TUIP
C. HoLEP
D. HoLRP
Answer : C

24. The probability of developing acute urinary retention is related to:
A. the neurological status of the patient
B. PVR
C. severity of obstructive LUTS
D. all of the above
Answer : D

25. What is (are) the indication(s) to prescribe ?-adrenergic inhibitors for BPH patients?
A. peak flow rate of ? 12 mL/sec
B. prostate volume > 40 ml
C. PSA > 1.5 ng/dL
D. b & c
Answer : A

26. a. small fibrous glands
A. the presence of prostate cancer
B. previous prostatectomy
C. all of the above
D. . Robot-assisted laparoscopic prostatectomy for prostatic adenoma has the following advantage over TURP:
Answer : C

27. What is false concerning needle ablation therapy of the prostate (TUNA)?
A. prostate sizes of up to 70 ml can be treated
B. not recommended in patients with metallic artificial hip
C. retreatment rates are lower than for TURP
D. can be performed in an office-based setting
Answer : C

28. Which statement(s) describe(s) the bladders response to an obstructing prostate?
A. it may develop detrusor instability with irritative LUTS
B. it may develop poor compliance with frequency and urgency symptoms
C. it may develop poor detrusor contractility with obstructive LUTS
D. all of the above
Answer : D

29. Which statement is false regarding TURP syndrome?
A. occurs because of absorption of non-sodium-containing irrigating fluid
B. occurs only on using unipolar TURP
C. results in brain edema due to dilutional hyponatremia
D. positioning the patient in anti-Trendelenburg helps prevent the syndrome
Answer : D

30. What is false concerning bladder and prostate histology in BPH?
A. obstruction results in bladder smooth muscle hypertrophy and myofibroblasts deposition
B. BPH occurs chiefly in the transitional zone and periurethral tissues
C. BPH microscopical changes begin in early thirties
D. histologic findings of chronic prostatitis are common in BPH
Answer : A

31. What is false concerning IPSS questionnaire?
A. is specific for prostate symptom
B. is a seven-question, self-administered questionnaire that yields a total score that ranges from 0 to 35
C. a sum of 20 on IPSS scale is severe
D. it covers both voiding and storage symptomatology
Answer : A

32. Prostatic nodules palpated on DRE might indicate:
A. tuberculous prostatitis
B. prostatic cancer
C. inspissated prostatic abscess
D. any of the above
Answer : D

33. What is (are) the favorite criterion (criteria) to prescribe 5?- reductase inhibitors for BPH cases?
A. PSA > 1.5 ng/dL
B. prostate volume > 40 ml
C. IPSS > 19
D. a & b
Answer : D

34. In BPH, the etiology of acute urinary retention includes:
A. prostatic infarction
B. prostate infection
C. bladder overdistention
D. all of the above
Answer : A

35. What is false concerning the diagnosis of BPH?
A. IPSS cannot be used to establish the diagnosis of BPH/LUTS
B. prostate biopsy is essential in diagnosing BPH and excluding cancers
C. PSA and uroflowmetry help diagnose the condition
D. none of the above
Answer : A

36. What is false concerning BPH and androgenic hormones?
A. the most potent androgenic hormones in BPH development is DHT
B. type-2 steroid 5 ?-reductase, is most commonly found in the prostate
C. castrated individuals before puberty will not develop BPH
D. as a man ages, the number of androgen receptors in the prostate decreases
Answer : D

37. How to manage priapism that occurs during endoscopic surgery?
A. corporal aspiration
B. corpora injection with an ?-adrenergic agent
C. corpora injection with an ?-adrenergic blocker
D. no treatment required
Answer : B

38. BPH patients with severe irritative symptoms or microscopic hematuria should:
A. go for urine cytology testing
B. go for PSA testing
C. go for TRUS
D. use anticholinergic medication
Answer : A

39. The most serious drawback of anticholinergic drugs on BPH patients is:
A. renal insufficiency
B. urinary retention
C. dry mouth
D. painless hematuria
Answer : B

40. In BPH patients, total PSA level correlates to:
A. the glandular component of the prostate
B. the IPSS questionnaire points
C. the PVR
D. the transitional zone volume
Answer : A

41. Complications related to obstructive BPH/LUTS include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. bladder stones
B. prostate cancer
C. renal insufficiency
D. bladder diverticula
Answer : B

42. Transurethral incision of the prostate (TUIP):
A. is only indicated in small prostates
B. complications are related to the amount of lost blood and removed chips
C. is a minimal procedure where no risk of rectal injury or retrograde ejaculation have been reported
D. it entails making 1 or 2 incisions along all prostate lobes except the apical
Answer : A

43. What class(es) of medications decrease(s) IPSS questionnaire points?
A. calcium channel blockers
B. antihistamines
C. antidepressants
D. cold medications containing pseudoephedrine
Answer : A

44. When comparing HoLEP to open prostatectomy for a 70 g prostatic adenoma removal; what parameter goes in favor of the latter?
A. operation time
B. duration of in-hospital stay
C. amount of blood transfused
D. time to catheter removal
Answer : A

45. TURP carries an incidence of retrograde ejaculation of:
A. 62 - 78%
B. 48 - 61%
C. 79 - 93%
D. 34 - 47%
Answer : C

46. Which of the following is NOT classified as a complicated LUTS?
A. LUTS with neurologic disease
B. LUTS with post-void dribble
C. LUTS with suspicious DRE
D. LUTS with hematuria
Answer : D

47. What is false regarding BPH genetics?
A. BPH is an inheritable and progressive disease
B. familial BPH presents at an older age when compared to sporadic cases
C. approximately 90% of men in their 80s have histologic evidence of BPH
D. BPH tends to be more severe and progressive in black men when compared to whites
Answer : B

48. BPH/LUTS patients when present with mild creatinine elevation, are advised to do:
A. total and free PSA
B. renal ultrasonography
C. creatinine clearance
D. uroflowmetry
Answer : B

49. What is false concerning TURP syndrome?
A. symptoms begin with a serum sodium of less than 120 mEq/L
B. the mortality is 2.7-5.8 %
C. manifestations rely on acute changes in the intravascular volume and plasma solute concentrations
D. the preferred height of irrigating fluid is 60 cm above the patient
Answer : B

50. c. each centimeter over the normal 2.5-cm prostate urethral length equates
A. an additional 15 g in prostate weight
B. each centimeter over the normal 1.5-cm prostate urethral length equates
C. an additional 5 g in prostate weight
D. . When comparing suprapubic to retropubic prostatectomy for removing prostatic adenoma, the former allows:
Answer : A