1000+ Urinary Calculus Disease MCQ for CLAT PG [Solved]

1. What parameter is NOT considered in the stone burden concept?
A. the surface area of the stones
B. the volume of the stones
C. the density of the stones
D. the number of the stones
Answer : C

2. What risk factor(s) promote(s) stone formation?
A. dehydration
B. metabolic disorders
C. congenital anomalies
D. all of the above
Answer : A

3. What is false concerning primary bladder stones?
A. commonly occur in patients with senile prostatic enlargement
B. common in children exposed to low-protein, low-phosphate diet
C. rarely recur after treatment
D. respond to ESWL
Answer : A

4. What statement is false concerning the use of desmopressin (DDAVP) in renal colic patients?
A. it causes reduction in the mean intra-ureteral pressure
B. it reduces the pain of acute renal colic
C. it has a direct relaxing effect on the renal pelvis and ureteral musculature
D. it is indicated when stones are ? 4 mm in diameter
Answer : D

5. What is false regarding DJ ureteral stents?
A. can be introduced from the bladder or kidney or any part of the ureter`s course
B. the standard adult size is 32 cm long, 4 mm calibre
C. might result in encrustations and ureteral obstruction
D. might result in ureteral dilation
Answer : B

6. What is (are) true concerning ESWL?
A. a stone is fragmented when the force of the shockwaves overcomes the tensile strength of the stone
B. fragmentation occurs as a result of compressive and tensile forces, erosion, shearing, spalling, and cavitation
C. the generation of compressive and tensile forces and cavitation are thought to be the most important
D. all of the above
Answer : D

7. Why do patients with cystic fibrosis form stones?
A. because urine and body secretions are highly concentrated
B. due to renal leak hypercalciuria
C. as a result of distal renal tubular acidosis type I
D. because of reduced or absent of oxalobacter formigenes colonization
Answer : D

8. During pyelolithotomy for removing a staghorn urate stone; how to ensure a complete removal of calyceal branches?
A. by performing intra-operative ultrasonography
B. by performing radial nephrotomies
C. by performing adjunct PCLN
D. by taking a scout KUB film
Answer : A

9. What kind of stones is most amenable to ESWL?
A. cystine
B. brushite
C. Ca.oxalate monohydrate
D. Ca.oxalate dihydrate
Answer : D

10. What are the expected findings on urinalysis in patients with acute renal colic?
A. blood cells more than pus cells
B. pus cells if infection was superadded
C. crystals might appear
D. all of the above
Answer : A

11. What is the most common composition of ureteral stones?
A. Ca.phosphate
B. Ca.oxalate
C. Na.urate
D. struvite
Answer : B

12. What is (are) the indication(s) of using DJ ureteral catheters?
A. to stent the ureter after ureteral surgery
B. to facilitate stone passage
C. after a tough ureteroscopy procedure
D. all of the above
Answer : D

13. What is false concerning the use of antibiotics in stone patients?
A. they are mandatory when urine shows ? 10 WBCs/hpf in symptomatic patients
B. they aim at treating pyonephrosis and urosepsis
C. they should cover Escherichia coli and Staphylococcus, Enterobacter, Proteus, and Klebsiella species
D. All of the above
Answer : D

14. What is (are) the indication(s) of ureteral stenting before ESWL?
A. stones in a solitary kidney
B. ureteral stones causing bilateral obstructions
C. a kidney stone of ? 2.5 cm in size
D. all of the above
Answer : D

15. What is false concerning PCNL in horseshoe kidneys?
A. the preferred access into the collecting system is through a posterior calyx
B. the posterior calyceal group is typically more medial than in the normal kidney
C. in most cases the lower pole calyces are posterior
D. it is desirable to make an upper pole collecting system puncture
Answer : C

16. What could high dietary protein result in?
A. increase urinary calcium, oxalate, and uric acid excretion
B. decrease urinary calcium; but increase oxalate, and uric acid excretion
C. increased urinary calcium and uric acid; but decrease oxalate excretion
D. decreased urinary calcium, oxalate, and uric acid excretion
Answer : A

17. Where do Randall plaques originate from?
A. transitional epithelium lining minor calyces
B. transitional epithelium lining major calyces
C. basement membrane of the loops of Henle
D. papillary tips of polar pyramids
Answer : C

18. The process where nucleation and further precipitations occur by different components to form urinary stones, is called:
A. classical nucleation theory
B. heterogeneous nucleation
C. suspension solution
D. concentric lamination
Answer : B

19. What is the most favorable stone characteristic for PCNL treatment?
A. ? 2 cm diaeter
B. upper calyx location
C. Na.urate composition
D. 600 - 800 HU density
Answer : A

20. What is false concerning cystine stones?
A. result from an inherited defect of renal tubular reabsorption of cysteine
B. characteristically, urate and cysteine stone are radiolucent
C. cysteine is a dibasic amino acid
D. on plain X-ray, cysteine stones exhibit ground-glass appearance
Answer : B

21. What is (are) the indication(s) of hospitalization of ureteral stone patients?
A. steinstrasse
B. a stone in ureterocele
C. fever, leucocytosis, pain
D. brushite stones
Answer : C

22. How is primary oxaluria treated?
A. terminal ilium resection
B. liver transplantation
C. kidney transplantation
D. regular hemodialysis
Answer : B

23. What is the principal defect in renal hypercalciuria?
A. impaired renal tubular calcium reabsorption
B. excessive glomerular leak of calcium
C. deficiency of the enzyme xanthine oxidase
D. hypercalcemia
Answer : A

24. What is false concerning cystine stones?
A. have diagnostic hexagonal crystals
B. dont respond to ESWL therapy
C. are highly soluble in water
D. inherited in an autosomal recessive fashion
Answer : C

25. What does NOT appear as a filling defect in the renal pelvis on IVU?
A. fungal ball
B. radiolucent stone
C. urothelial growth
D. upper end of DJ ureteral stent
Answer : D

26. Expectant therapy for ureteral stones is indicated when:
A. stone size of ? 4 mm
B. stone burden of ? 22 mm
C. there is a distal partial obstruction
D. the patient has end-stage renal failure
Answer : A

27. On treating uric acid stones, excessive alkalinization with potassium citrate could result in all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. formation of triple-phosphate stones
B. infection with Proteus species
C. increase production of endogenous uric acid
D. increase level of uric acid in THE blood
Answer : C

28. What is the most important parameter that determines the treatment modality of a kidney stone?
A. stone chemical composition
B. stone burden
C. first stone vs. recurrent
D. stone density
Answer : B

29. What kind of stones is more likely to recur with infections if not removed completely?
A. urate
B. triple phosphate
C. oxalate monohydrate
D. matrix
Answer : B

30. What does nephrocalcin do?
A. dissolves cystine stones
B. enhances nephrocalcinosis process over old scared areas
C. inhibits Ca.oxalate aggregation and crystallization
D. plays a secondary role in metastatic calcification process
Answer : C

31. When should renal stone patients be evaluated for metabolic diseases?
A. when stones are multiple and/or recurrent
B. when stones form in childhood
C. in cases where nephrocalcinosis and urolithiasis are present
D. all of the above
Answer : D

32. What is the Hounsfield density range of uric acid stones?
A. 400 600 HU
B. 600 800 HU
C. 800 1000 HU
D. 1000 1200 HU
Answer : A

33. What is the treatment of choice for a 15 mm stone in a mid calyceal diverticulum?
A. ESWL
B. PCNL with fulguration of the diverticulum
C. ureteroscopy with fulguration of the diverticulum
D. pyelolithotomy with diverticulectomy
Answer : B

34. What is true regarding a stone in a urethral diverticulum?
A. is symptomless
B. should undergo a trial of milking out
C. diverticulectomy and stone extraction is the treatment of choice
D. ESWL is the preferred treatment option
Answer : C

35. What stone is inherited as an autosomal recessive trait?
A. xanthine
B. ammonium urate
C. cystine
D. calcium oxalate dihydrate
Answer : C

36. What is false concerning obesity and urinary stone formation?
A. obese patients have a higher tendency for uric acid stone formation
B. high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet might increase the risk of stone formation and bone loss
C. metabolic syndrome is associated with high urinary pH
D. Roux-en-Y-gastric bypass surgery may increase the risk for stone formation
Answer : C

37. Which of the following dietary advice is recommended for Ca.oxalate stone formers?
A. limit beef, chicken, pork, eggs, fish, shellfish, and other animal proteins
B. limit beans, nuts, chocolate, coffee, dark green vegetables, and soda
C. limit canned, packaged, and fast foods
D. limit milk, cheese, and other dairy products
Answer : B

38. What type of urinary diversion carries the highest risk of stone formation?
A. Kock pouch
B. Neobladder-to-urethra diversion
C. Florida pouch
D. Indiana pouch
Answer : A

39. What is the favorable stone characteristic for ESWL treatment?
A. 1000 - 1300 HU density
B. 5 - 10 mm diameter
C. lower calyx location
D. mid ureteral location
Answer B

40. What could high level of sulfate in 24-hr. urine collection mean?
A. dissolving homogenous nucleation
B. high tendency to form cystine sulfate stones
C. indicates the amount of dietary protein
D. post ESWL therapy
Answer : C

41. What medications do NOT cause renal stones?
A. ciprofloxacin
B. indinavir
C. thiazides
D. triamterene
Answer : C

42. What is false concerning urethral stones?
A. stones at posterior urethra could be pushed back to the bladder
B. stones at anterior urethra have to undergo a trial of milking out, using copious intra-urethral xylocaine gel
C. often respond to a two-week course of tamsulosin
D. respond to Holmium laser treatment
Answer : C

43. Which statement is false concerning renal stones related to hyperparathyroidism (HPT)?
A. renal stones are found in 20% of patients with primary HPT
B. acidic arrest promotes crystallisation of calcium phosphate stones related to HPT
C. HPT, vitamin D excess, and malignancy could lead to hypercalcemia and hypercalciuria
D. only surgery can cure primary HPT
Answer : B

44. What is the sure diagnostic finding of Ca.oxalate stones?
A. chemical analysis of a recovered stone
B. hypercalcemia
C. CT finding
D. high breakability on ESWL
Answer : A

45. What is true regarding DJ ureteral stents?
A. can be placed through perc. nephrostomy
B. might slip out, especially in females
C. usually radiopaque
D. all of the above
Answer : D

46. What is the proper sequence of the following stones when ordered from most radiopaque to most radiolucent as they appear on plain Xray film?
A. Ca.oxalate, Ca.phosphate, Na.urate, cystine
B. Ca.phosphate, Ca.oxalate, cystine, Na.urate
C. Ca.oxalate, Ca.phosphate, cystine, Na.urate
D. Ca.phosphate, Ca.oxalate, Na.urate, cystine
Answer : B

47. What parameter impairs the kidney stone-free rate, after ESWL?
A. short skin-to-stone distance (SSD)
B. end-stage renal failure
C. a stone in the upper calyx
D. the presence of a 30 cm, 4.7 Fr ureteral stent in situ
Answer : B

48. For how long a completely obstructed ureter could be respited with no expected permanent damage to renal functions?
A. 2 days
B. 2 weeks
C. 2 months
D. 4 6 hrs.
Answer : B

49. How can the effectiveness of ESWL treatment session be enhanced?
A. by ensuring optimal coupling of the patient to the lithotripter
B. by running the treatment at a slower rate (60 shocks/min)
C. by running the treatment with general anesthesia
D. by all of the above
Answer : D

50. What could the discomfort experienced during ESWL session be related to?
A. the energy density of the shock waves as they pass through the skin
B. the size of the focal point
C. a & b
D. none of the above
Answer : C