1000+ WAN MCQ for CAT [Solved]

1. The _________ is your network equipment, which includes the DCE (e.g., a modem) and the DTE (e.g., a router).
A. Demarcation point
B. Carrier switch
C. Local loop
D. CPE
Answer : D

2. _________ negotiates the data link and network layer protocols that will traverse a PPP connection.
A. LCP
B. NCP
C. CDP
D. PAP
Answer : B

3. To recall a previous command, which of the following would you use?
A. CTRL-P
B. ctrl-n
C. ctrl-r
D. down arrow
Answer : A

4. The ___________ is the point where the carrier's responsibility ends and yours begins.
A. Local loop
B. Demarcation point
C. CPE
D. Toll network
Answer : B

5. You are given the following addressing information: 192.168.37.192/25. What type of address is this?
A. Network
B. Directed Broadcast
C. Host
D.
Answer : C

6. You are given the following addressing information: 10.0.8.0/22. What type of address is this?
A. Network
B. Directed Broadcast
C. Host
D.
Answer : A

7. Which of the following is a valid subnet mask value?
A. 255.0.255.255
B. 0.0.0.255
C. 255.255.254.0
D. 255.255.255.256
Answer : C

8. Which command activates an IP ACL on a router's interface?
A. access-list
B. ip access-group
C. access-class
D. access-group
Answer : B

9. A ___________ is similar to a telephone circuit-switched connection.
A. PVC
B. SVC
C.
D.
Answer : B

10. __________ states that if a neighboring router sends a route to a router, the receiving router will not propagate this route back to the advertising router on the same interface.
A. Split horizon
B. Poison reverse
C. Hold-down timer
D. Hop count limit
Answer : A

11. The address of a Frame Relay VC is called a ___________.
A. Data link layer connection identifier
B. Data layer connection index
C. Data link connection index
D. Data link connection identifier
Answer : D

12. The _________ command takes you from User EXEC mode to Privilege EXEC mode
A. DISABLE
B. ENABLE
C.
D.
Answer : B

13. Which control sequence moves the cursor to the end of the line?
A. CTRL-A
B. ctrl-p
C. ctrl-e
D. ctrl-z
Answer : C

14. A __________ topology uses a single connection to connect all devices together.
A. Bus
B. Star
C. Point-to-point
D. Ring
Answer : A

15. You have this binary value: 11000001. This equates to _____ in decimal.
A. 183
B. 193
C. 173
D. 203
Answer : B

16. You are given a class C network and you have four LAN segments with the following numbers of devices: 120, 60, and two with 30. What subnet mask values would you use to accommodate these segments?
A. /24, /25, and /26
B. /25, /26, and /27
C. /26, /27, and /28
D. None of these
Answer : B

17. Extended IP ACLs should be placed as close to the ____________ device as possible.
A. Source
B. Destination
C.
D.
Answer : A

18. Which of the following is false concerning VLANs?
A. A VLAN is a broadcast domain.
B. A VLAN is a logical group of users.
C. A VLAN is location-dependent.
D. A VLAN is a subnet.
Answer : C

19. Which of the following are not features of ACLs?
A. Restricting telnet access to a router
B. Prioritizing WAN traffic
C. Filtering traffic from the router
D. Triggering dialup phone calls
Answer : C

20. When using debug with PAP, which of the following message types might you see?
A. AUTH-ACK
B. SUCCESS
C. CHALLENGE
D. None of these
Answer : A

21. A _________ provides a high-speed infrastructure to move data between storage devices and file servers.
A. SAN
B. LAN
C. CN
D. SAN and CN
Answer : A

22. Which router command would you use to test only layer-3 connectivity?
A. telnet
B. show cdp traffic
C. show interfaces
D. traceroute
Answer : D

23. What command assigns a User EXEC password to a 2950 switch?
A. password
B. login
C. enable password
D. enable password level
Answer : A

24. Which of the following is the most expensive type of WAN connection?
A. Dedicated circuit connection
B. Circuit-switched connection
C. Packet-switched connection
D.
Answer : A

25. A _________ connects two or more LANs in the same geographic area.
A. LAN
B. WAN
C. MAN
D. SAN
Answer : C

26. Which of the following is a disadvantage of SANs?
A. Distance limitation
B. Cost
C. Overhead
D. Management
Answer : B

27. Which 2950 command enables trunking?
A. switchport mode trunk
B. trunking on
C. trunking enable
D. switchport trunk on
Answer : A

28. Which router command specifies the ISDN switch the router is connected to?
A. isdn switch-type
B. isdn connection-type
C. isdn spid1
D. interface serial0:15
Answer : A

29. Private addressing is defined in RFC ______.
A. 1920
B. 1934
C. 1818
D. 1918
Answer : D

30. OSPF uses __________ as a metric.
A. Bandwidth
B. Delay
C. Cost
D. Hop count
Answer : C

31. The TCP/IP protocol stack has ________ layers.
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
Answer : B

32. BPDU stands for ____________.
A. Bridge Protocol Description Unicast
B. Bridge Protocol Data Unit
C. Bridge Protocol Description Unit
D. Bridge Protocol Data Unicast
Answer : B

33. Which of the following is false concerning OSPF?
A. It provides a loop-free topology.
B. It is a classful protocol and allows for a hierarchical design.
C. It requires more memory and processing cycles than distance vector protocols.
D. It is complex to configure and difficult to troubleshoot.
Answer : B

34. Extended traceroute works from which mode?
A. User EXEC
B. Privilege EXEC
C. Configuration
D. User and Privilege EXEC
Answer : B

35. The dialer map command contains all of the following parameters except __________.
A. Protocol name
B. Remote router name
C. Address of local router
D. Speed of the connection
Answer : C

36. When a carrier experiences congestion, it marks the _______ bit in the header of the Frame Relay frame.
A. CIR
B. DE
C. BECN
D. FECN
Answer : D

37. The ___________ converts an ISDN four-wire connection to a two-wire connection.
A. NT5
B. NP1
C. NT1
D. TN1
Answer : C

38. When you have configured PPP on an interface and use the show interfaces command, what state indicates the successful negotiation of a network layer protocol?
A. ACK
B. CHALLENGE
C. CLOSED
D. OPEN
Answer : D

39. _________ defines how the Frame Relay DTE and DCE interact with each other.
A. DLCI
B. CIR
C. LMI
D. PMI
Answer : C

40. Which router-on-a-stick command defines the VLAN for the interface?
A. vlan
B. encapsulation
C. trunk
D. frame-type
Answer : B

41. Which metric components, by default, are used in IGRP? (Choose all the correct answers.)
A. Delay
B. Reliability
C. Load
D. Bandwidth
Answer : A

42. There are _________ actions a router can take when there is a match on an ACL statement
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer : B

43. OSPF supports a ________-layer hierarchical design.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. Multi
Answer : B

44. Which of the following is true concerning 802.1Q?
A. It supports hub connections.
B. It is supported on both the 1900 and 2950 switches.
C. The native VLAN is tagged.
D. The original Ethernet frame is not modified.
Answer : A

45. You are given a Class B network with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192. How many host
addresses are there on each subnet?
A. 30
B. 62
C. 126
D. 254
Answer : B

46. The root switch is the one elected with the __________ __________.
A. Lowest MAC address
B. Highest MAC address
C. Lowest switch ID
D. Highest switch ID
Answer : C

47. ________ topologies in NBMA environments do not have problems with split horizon.
A. Partially meshed
B. Fully meshed
C. Hub and spoke
D. Star
Answer : B

48. Which of the following is true concerning bridges?
A. They switch frames in hardware.
B. They support half- and full-duplexing.
C. They support one collision domain for the entire bridge.
D. They do only store-and-forward switching.
Answer : D

49. Which of the following is true concerning ISL?
A. It is supported on both the 1900 and 2950 switches.
B. It adds a 26-byte trailer and 4-byte header.
C. Tagging is done in software.
D. The original Ethernet frame is not modified.
Answer : D

50. A __________ route is the best path to reach a destination within the topology table.
A. Successor
B. Feasible successor
C. Advertised distance
D. Feasible distance
Answer : A