Airport Engineering 1000+ MCQ with answer for SSC Stenographer

1. Pick up the component not applicable to aeroplanes
A. Wings
B. Engines
C. Air screw
D. None of these
Answer : D

2. The threshold markings are
A. 4 m wide
B. 1 m clear space between adjacent
C. Placed symmetrically on either side of the runway centre line
D. All the above
Answer : D

3. The lift off distance is the distance along the centre of the runway between the starting point and
A. End of the runway
B. End of stop-way
C. Point where air craft becomes air borne
D. Point where air craft attains a height of 10.7 m
Answer : A

4. The distance between main gears is 10 m, and the distance of nose gear from centre of main gears is 30 m. If the angle of turning is 60°, the distance of centre of rotation from the nearer main gear, is
A. 12.30 m
B. 11.30 m
C. 10.30 m
D. 9.30 m
Answer : A

5. The main disadvantage of angle nose out parking configuration of aircraft is that the
A. Aircraft rear loading door is far away from terminal building.
B. Hot blast is directed towards the terminal building
C. Overall apron area required is more
D. All the above
Answer : B

6. In an airport, if 4 groups of 5 gates each located well separated are considered for traffic and the future to present traffic ratio is 3, then the total requirement of future gates will be
A. 32
B. 36
C. 44
D. 68
Answer : B

7. The bearing of the runway at threshold is 290°, the runway number is
A. N 70° W
B. 290°
C. 29°
D. W 20° N
Answer : C

8. Zero fuel weight of an aircraft is:
A. Equal to empty operating weight
B. Equal to maximum landing weight
C. Less than empty operating weight
D. Equal to sum of empty operating weight and the maximum pay load
Answer : D

9. Speed of
A. Sound at 0°C is 1190 kmph
B. Sound varies 2.4 kmph per degree centigrade rise in temperature
C. Sound at 0°C is called one Mach
D. All the above
Answer : D

10. Airport elevation is the reduced level above M.S.L. of
A. Control tower
B. Highest point of the landing area
C. Lowest point of the landing area
D. None of these
Answer : B

11. Assertion A : Airport capacity during IFR conditions is usually less than that during VFR conditions. Reason R: During clear weather condition (VFR), the aircrafts on final approach to runway can be spaced closer during poor visibility conditions. Select your answer based on the coding system given below:
A. Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R is true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true
Answer : A

12. As per ICAO recommendation, minimum width of safety area for instrumental runway should be
A. 78 m
B. 150 m
C. 300 m
D. 450 m
Answer : C

13. The runway length after correcting for elevation and temperature is 2845 m. If the effective gradient on runway is 0.5 percent then the revised runway length will be
A. 2845 m
B. 2910 m
C. 3030 m
D. 3130 m
Answer : C

14. Pick up the correct abbreviation from the following:
A. L.M.M. (low powered middle marker)
B. V.H.F, (very high frequency)
C. L.O.M. (low powered outer marker)
D. All the above
Answer : D

15. The length of runway under standard conditions is 2000 m. The elevation of airport site is 300 m. Its reference temperature is 33.05°C. If the runway is to be constructed with an effective gradient of 0.25 percent, the corrected runway length will be
A. 2500 m
B. 2600 m
C. 2700 m
D. 2800 m
Answer : C

16. Castor angle is defined as the angle
A. Formed by the longitudinal axis of the aircraft and the direction of movement of the nose gear
B. Between the direction of wind and the longitudinal axis of the runway
C. Between the true speed of the aircraft and the crosswind component
D. Between the horizontal and the fuselage axis
Answer : A

17. Consider the following statements regarding ICAO recommendation for correction to basic runway length
1. The basic runway length should be increased at the rate of 7 percent per 300 m rise in elevation above the mean sea level.
2. The basic runway length after having been corrected for elevation should be further increased at the rate of 1 percent for every 1°C rise in airport reference temperature above the standard atmospheric temperature at that elevation.
3. The runway length after having been corrected for elevation and temperature should be further increased at the rate of 20% for every 1 percent of effective gradient. Of these statements
A. 1 and 2 are correct
B. 2 and 3 are correct
C. 1 and 3 are correct
D. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
Answer : A

18. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
A. F.I.R. stands for flight information regions
B. Radius of control area is 160 km
C. Radius of control zone is 40 km
D. All the above
Answer : D

19. From the end of an instrumental runway, the approach surface rises outwards
A. 1 in 20
B. 1 in 30
C. 1 in 40
D. 1 in 50
Answer : D

20. The length of runway is increased per 300 m rise above M.S.L.
A. 3 %
B. 4 %
C. 5 %
D. 7 %
Answer : D

21. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
A. L.O.M. is installed at 7.2 km from the threshold
B. L.M.M. is installed at 1.0 km from the threshold
C. Localizer antenna is installed at 300 m from the other end of the runway
D. Glide slope antenna is installed at the centre of the runway about 150 m on one side
Answer : D

22. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
A. The distance between the points of intersection of the extreme tangents to the transition curve is kept greater than 7500 m × sum of grade changes at the point of intersection
B. The rate of change of grade is limited to 0.3% per 30 m length of the curve
C. According to I.C.A.O. the maximum longitudinal gradient along a runway is limited to 1.5%
D. All the above
Answer : D

23. If the monthly mean of average daily temperature for the hottest month of the year is 25°C and the monthly mean of the maximum daily temperature of the same month of the year is 46°C, the airport reference temperature is
A. 32°C
B. 35.5°C
C. 48°C
D. 25°C
Answer : C

24. For supersonic transport aircraft, the minimum turning radius of taxiway is
A. 60 m
B. 120 m
C. 180 m
D. 240 m
Answer : C

25. An aircraft is flying in an atmosphere of 30°C with a speed of 1260 km ph. Its speed is known as
A. Subsonic
B. Sonic
C. Super-sonic
D. Mach
Answer : B

26. According to I.C.A.O. the recommended length of air ports is decided on
A. Sea level elevation
B. Standard sea level temperature (15°C)
C. Effective gradient percentage
D. All the above
Answer : D

27. The landing and takeoff of the air craft is made against the direction of wind. In no case the centre line of the runway should make an angle with the wind direction exceeding
A. 10°
B. 20°
C. 30°
D. 40°
Answer : C

28. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
A. Tar concrete pavements are suitable if fuel spillage occurs
B. Rubberised tar concrete hot blast as well as spillage
C. Epoxy asphalt concrete sets in very small time
D. All the above
Answer : D

29. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
A. Minimum turning radius of aircrafts decides the size of the apron and the radius of the curves at taxi-ends
B. Take off and landing distances for an aircraft, determine the minimum runway length
C. The length of the normal haul of the air craft decides the frequency of operation
D. All the above
Answer : D

30. Which of the following is used for servicing and repairs of the aircraft?
A. Apron
B. Hanger
C. Terminal building
D. Holding apron
Answer : B

31. As per ICAO, for A, B, and C type of airports, maximum effective, transverse and longitudinal grades in percentage respectively are
A. 1.0, 1.5 and 1.5
B. 1.0, 1.5 and 2.0
C. 1.5, 1.5 and 2.0
D. 2.0, 2.0 and 2.0
Answer : A

32. According to the International Civil Aviation Organisation (I.C.A.O.), the runway lengths of aerodromes, have been coded by
A. Seven English alphabets
B. Last Seven English alphabets
C. First Seven English alphabets
D. First seven natural numbers
Answer : C

33. To cope up high temperature of 196°C, the taxi ways and aprons are constructed with
A. Asphaltic concrete
B. Rubberised tar concrete
C. Plain concrete
D. All the above
Answer : D

34. Beaufort scale is used to determine
A. Strength of winds
B. Direction of winds
C. Height of air-crafts
D. None of these
Answer : A

35. The strength of winds is measured with the help of
A. Beaufort scale
B. Wind indicator
C. Barometers
D. None of these
Answer : A

36. Two single runways may be arranged so as to have
A. L-shape
B. T-shape
C. X-shape
D. All the above
Answer : D

37. The width and interval of transverse centre line bars along the extended centre line of runway, in approach lighting system are
A. 3 m and 30 m
B. 4.2 m and 30 m
C. 4.2 m and 50 m
D. 3 m and 45 m
Answer : B

38. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
A. In single engine aeroplanes, the engine is provided in the nose of the aircraft
B. In double engine aeroplanes, one engine on either wing is placed symmetrically
C. In three engine aeroplanes, two engines are placed on both wings and one engine is placed in the tail
D. None of these
Answer : C

39. Assertion A: The width of a taxiway is smaller than the runway width. Reason R: The speed of the aircraft on a taxiway is greater than that on runway. Select your answer based on coding system given below
A. Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R is true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true
Answer : C

40. For Class A Air port the difference of reduced levels of higher and lower edges of the conical surface, is
A. 25 m
B. 50 m
C. 75 m
D. 100 m
Answer : D

41. The reduced level of the proposed site of an air port is 2500 m above M.S.L. If the recommended length by I.C.A.O. for the runway at sea level is 2500 m, the required length of the runway is
A. 2500 m
B. 3725 m
C. 3000 m
D. 3250 m
Answer : B

42. International Civil Aviation Organisation (I.C.A.O.) was set up at Montreal (Canada), in
A. 1929
B. 1939
C. 1947
D. 1950
Answer : C

43. The runway orientation is made so that landing and takeoff are
A. Against the wind direction
B. Along the wind direction
C. Perpendicular to wind direction
D. None of these
Answer : A

44. As per ICAO, the minimum basic runway length for A and E type of airport will be
A. 1500 m and 600 m
B. 2100 m and 750 m
C. 1500 m and 750 m
D. 2100 m and 600 m
Answer : D

45. The slope of the obstruction clearance line from the boundary of the heliport should be
A. 1 : 2
B. 1 : 5
C. 1 : 8
D. 1 : 40
Answer : C

46. If lift off distance of an craft is 2000 m, the clear way at the end of the runway should not be less than
A. 145 m
B. 152.5 m
C. 162.5 m
D. 172.5 m
Answer : D

47. Which of the following is an example of failure in flexible pavements?
A. Alligator cracking
B. Mud pumping
C. Warping cracks
D. Shrinkage cracks
Answer : A

48. An airport has 4 gates. If the weighted average gate occupancy time is 30 minutes and gate utilisation factor is 0.5, then the capacity of the gate will be
A. 1 aircraft per hour
B. 2 aircrafts per hour
C. 4 aircrafts per hour
D. 16 aircrafts per hour
Answer : C

49. The centre to centre spacing of heliport lighting along the periphery of landing and takeoff area should be
A. 2.5 m
B. 5.0 m
C. 7.5 m
D. 10.0 m
Answer : C

50. For determining the basic runway length, the landing case requires that aircraft should come to a stop within p % of the landing distance. The value of p is
A. 40 %
B. 50 %
C. 60 %
D. 75 %
Answer : C