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GMAT - Airport Engineering 1000+ MCQ [Solved] PDF Download

Thursday 9th of March 2023

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1. Assertion A : Airport capacity during IFR conditions is usually less than that during VFR conditions. Reason R: During clear weather condition (VFR), the aircrafts on final approach to runway can be spaced closer during poor visibility conditions. Select your answer based on the coding system given below:
A. Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R is true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true
Answer : A
2. The threshold markings are
A. 4 m wide
B. 1 m clear space between adjacent
C. Placed symmetrically on either side of the runway centre line
D. All the above
Answer : D
3. A gradient of + 0.08% is followed by a gradient of - 0.07%. If the permissible rate of change of grade is 0.003 per 30 metres, the length of the transition curve, is
A. 150 m
B. 140 m
C. 160 m
D. 175 m
Answer : A
4. Effective length of a runway is the distance between
A. Ends of the runway
B. Point of intersection of the obstruction clearance line and the extended plane of the runway surface, and the other end of the runway
C. Point of intersection of the glide path and the extended plane of the runway surface and the other end of the runway
D. Ends of the clear way on either side
Answer : B
5. The width and interval of transverse centre line bars along the extended centre line of runway, in approach lighting system are
A. 3 m and 30 m
B. 4.2 m and 30 m
C. 4.2 m and 50 m
D. 3 m and 45 m
Answer : B
6. Two single runways may be arranged so as to have
A. L-shape
B. T-shape
C. X-shape
D. All the above
Answer : D
7. According to I.C.A.O. all markings on the runways are painted white and on taxiways
A. Black
B. Red
C. Yellow
D. Green
Answer : C
8. An airport has 4 gates. If the weighted average gate occupancy time is 30 minutes and gate utilisation factor is 0.5, then the capacity of the gate will be
A. 1 aircraft per hour
B. 2 aircrafts per hour
C. 4 aircrafts per hour
D. 16 aircrafts per hour
Answer : C
9. For Class A Air port the difference of reduced levels of higher and lower edges of the conical surface, is
A. 25 m
B. 50 m
C. 75 m
D. 100 m
Answer : D
10. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
A. The basic length of a runway is increased at a rate of 7% per 300 m of elevation of M.S.L.
B. The standard temperature at the site is obtained by reducing the standard sea level temperature of 15°C at the rate of 6.5°C per 1000 m rise in elevation
C. The aerodrome reference temperature is the monthly mean of the mean daily temperature for the hottest month of the year
D. All the above
Answer : D
11. Which of the following is an example of failure in flexible pavements?
A. Alligator cracking
B. Mud pumping
C. Warping cracks
D. Shrinkage cracks
Answer : A
12. In Intrumental landing system, the middle markers are located
A. Along the extended centre line of runway end
B. About 1 km. ahead of the runway threshold
C. At the runway threshold
D. About 7 km. ahead of the runway threshold
Answer : B
13. Assertion A : The ratio of arriving and departing aircrafts influences the airport Capacity: Reason R : Landing operation is generally given priority over the taking off operation. Select your answer based on the coding system given below:
A. Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R is true and R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true
Answer : A
14. Airport elevation is the reduced level above M.S.L. of
A. Control tower
B. Highest point of the landing area
C. Lowest point of the landing area
D. None of these
Answer : B
15. As per ICAO, the minimum basic runway length for A and E type of airport will be
A. 1500 m and 600 m
B. 2100 m and 750 m
C. 1500 m and 750 m
D. 2100 m and 600 m
Answer : D
16. As per ICAO, for A, B, and C type of airports, maximum effective, transverse and longitudinal grades in percentage respectively are
A. 1.0, 1.5 and 1.5
B. 1.0, 1.5 and 2.0
C. 1.5, 1.5 and 2.0
D. 2.0, 2.0 and 2.0
Answer : A
17. The landing and takeoff of the air craft is made against the direction of wind. In no case the centre line of the runway should make an angle with the wind direction exceeding
A. 10°
B. 20°
C. 30°
D. 40°
Answer : C
18. Beaufort scale is used to determine
A. Strength of winds
B. Direction of winds
C. Height of air-crafts
D. None of these
Answer : A
19. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
A. In single engine aeroplanes, the engine is provided in the nose of the aircraft
B. In double engine aeroplanes, one engine on either wing is placed symmetrically
C./strong> In three engine aeroplanes, two engines are placed on both wings and one engine is placed in the tail
D. None of these
Answer : C
20. The maximum value of the angle of turning of the nose gear large jet aircrafts, is limited to
A. 20°
B. 30°
C. 45°
D. 60°
Answer : D
21. Consider the following statements regarding ICAO recommendation for correction to basic runway length
1. The basic runway length should be increased at the rate of 7 percent per 300 m rise in elevation above the mean sea level.
2. The basic runway length after having been corrected for elevation should be further increased at the rate of 1 percent for every 1°C rise in airport reference temperature above the standard atmospheric temperature at that elevation.
3. The runway length after having been corrected for elevation and temperature should be further increased at the rate of 20% for every 1 percent of effective gradient. Of these statements

A. 1 and 2 are correct
B. 2 and 3 are correct
C. 1 and 3 are correct
D. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
Answer : A
22. Total correction for elevation, temperature and gradient for a runway should not be more than
A. 15 %
B. 20 %
C. 25 %
D. 35 %
Answer : D
23. For the proposed air port, the survey project provides
A. Master plan
B. Topographic plan
C. Grading plan
D. All the above
Answer : D
24. The reduced levels of the ends A and B of a runway are 3025 m and 3035 m and that of its mid-point is 3015 m. The reduced level of the horizontal surface, is
A. 3070 m
B. 3060 m
C. 3075 m
D. 3015 m
Answer : C
25. The slope of the obstruction clearance line from the boundary of the heliport should be
A. 1 : 2
B. 1 : 5
C. 1 : 8
D. 1 : 40
Answer : C
26. As per ICAO, for airports serving big aircrafts, the crosswind component should not exceed
A. 15 kmph
B. 25 kmph
C. 35 kmph
D. 45 kmph
Answer : C
27. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
A. Air screw converts the energy given by the engine into speed
B. The propellers which are driven by turbine engines, are technically called turboprops
C. The aircrafts which obtain the thrust directly from turbine engine, are called turbo-jets
D. All the above
Answer : D
28. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
A. Tar concrete pavements are suitable if fuel spillage occurs
B. Rubberised tar concrete hot blast as well as spillage
C. Epoxy asphalt concrete sets in very small time
D. All the above
Answer : D
29. Which of the following is used for servicing and repairs of the aircraft?
A. Apron
B. Hanger
C. Terminal building
D. Holding apron
Answer : B
30. Calm period is the percentage of time during which wind intensity is less than
A. 4.8 kmph
B. 6.4 kmph
C. 8.0 kmph
D. 9.6 kmph
Answer : B
31. Runway threshold is indicated by a series of parallel lines starting from a distance of
A. 3 m from runway end
B. 6 m from runway end
C. 10 m from runway end
D. 15 m from runway end
Answer : B
32. For the proposed runway stated in if the aerodrome reference temperature is 17°.2, the net designed length of the runway is
A. 2716 m
B. 2816 m
C. 2916 m
D. 3016 m
Answer : B
33. In an airport, if 4 groups of 5 gates each located well separated are considered for traffic and the future to present traffic ratio is 3, then the total requirement of future gates will be
A. 32
B. 36
C. 44
D. 68
Answer : B
34. The length of a runway under standard atmospheric conditions is 1800 m. If the actual reduced level of the site is 1200 m, the design length of the runway is
A. 2360 m
B. 2460 m
C. 2560 m
D. 2660 m
Answer : C
35. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
A. Approach zone survey is carried out to determine the elevations of the protruding obstructions above horizontal, conical and transitional surfaces
B. The wind data of an air port is depicted in the form of a chart known as wind rose
C. The landing and takeoff of the air craft is made against the wind direction
D. All the above
Answer : D
36. The capacity of parallel runway pattern depends upon
A. Weather conditions and navigational aids available
B. Lateral spacing between two runways and weather conditions
C. Lateral spacing between two runways and navigational aids available
D. Lateral spacing between two runways, weather conditions and navigational aids available.
Answer : D
37. The lift off distance is the distance along the centre of the runway between the starting point and
A. End of the runway
B. End of stop-way
C. Point where air craft becomes air borne
D. Point where air craft attains a height of 10.7 m
Answer : A
38. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
A. F.I.R. stands for flight information regions
B. Radius of control area is 160 km
C. Radius of control zone is 40 km
D. All the above
Answer : D
39. The main disadvantage of angle nose out parking configuration of aircraft is that the
A. Aircraft rear loading door is far away from terminal building.
B. Hot blast is directed towards the terminal building
C. Overall apron area required is more
D. All the above
Answer : B
40. For determining the basic runway length, the landing case requires that aircraft should come to a stop within p % of the landing distance. The value of p is
A. 40 %
B. 50 %
C. 60 %
D. 75 %
Answer : C
41. If the width of the approach area near the runway end is 150 m, the width of the approach area at a distance of 3 kilometres from runway end will be
A. 1500 m
B. 1200 m
C. 1000 m
D. 800 m
Answer : B
42. Castor angle is defined as the angle
A. Formed by the longitudinal axis of the aircraft and the direction of movement of the nose gear
B. Between the direction of wind and the longitudinal axis of the runway
C. Between the true speed of the aircraft and the crosswind component
D. Between the horizontal and the fuselage axis
Answer : A
43. Maximum gross takeoff weight of an aircraft is
A. Equal to the maximum structural landing weight
B. Less than the maximum structural landing weight
C. More than the maximum structural landing weight
D. Equal to the empty operating weight plus the payload
Answer : C
44. Conical surface of the approach area rises outwards
A. 1 in 10
B. 1 in 15
C. 1 in 20
D. 1 in 25
Answer : C
45. Pick up the correct statement from the following:
A. Landing speed is directly proportional to the wing loading
B. Wing loading remaining constant, the take off distance is directly proportional to the powder loading
C. Neither (a) nor (b)
D. Both (a) and (b)
Answer : D
46. As per ICAO recommendation, minimum width of safety area for instrumental runway should be
A. 78 m
B. 150 m
C. 300 m
D. 450 m
Answer : C
47. The length of runway under standard conditions is 2000 m. The elevation of airport site is 300 m. Its reference temperature is 33.05°C. If the runway is to be constructed with an effective gradient of 0.25 percent, the corrected runway length will be
A. 2500 m
B. 2600 m
C. 2700 m
D. 2800 m
Answer : C
48. Pick up the component not applicable to aeroplanes
A. Wings
B. Engines
C. Air screw
D. None of these
Answer : D
49. Assertion A: The width of a taxiway is smaller than the runway width. Reason R: The speed of the aircraft on a taxiway is greater than that on runway. Select your answer based on coding system given below
A. Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R is true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true
Answer : C
50. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:
A. Channelization of pavement is caused by constant use of tri-cycle gears of aircraft
B. Blast pads are used over cohesionless soils to resist erosion due to tremendous speed of the jet blast
C. Over-run areas of at least 300 m length on either side of the runway are provided
D. None of these
Answer : D

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