NDA - Urologic infections and inflammations 1000+ MCQ [Solved] PDF Download

1. What is essential on diagnosing bladder pain syndrome BPS/IC?
A. sterile pyuria on 3 consecutive cultures
B. the presence of glomerulations and/or Hunner`s ulcer on endoscopy
C. pain and discomfort related to the bladder
D. urgency and frequency with no documented infection
Answer : C

2. The virulence of uropathogenic E.coli depends on all the following,
EXCEPT:
A. P blood-group antigen
B. P fimbriae in descending infections
C. emolysins
D. Dr family of adhesins in ascending infections
Answer : B

3. What is false about urinary catheters?
A. condom catheters carry less risk of UTI if compared to urethral
B. suprapubic catheters carry less risk of UTI if compared to urethral
C. latex catheters carry less risk of UTI if compared to silicon
D. intermittent catheterization carry less risk of UTI if compared to indwelling catheters
Answer : C

4. What is (are) the complication(s) of sexually transmitted infections?
A. pelvic inflammatory disease
B. lymphogranuloma venereum
C. infertility
D. all of the above
Answer : D

5. What is the estimated risk of untreated Chlamydial infections in producing pelvic inflammatory disease?
A. 1 2.7%
B. 5 9%
C. 10 27%
D. 30 47%
Answer : C

6. Which of the following has NO role in bacterial colonization in the prostate?
A. intra-prostatic ductal reflux
B. paraphimosis
C. specific blood groups
D. unprotected anal intercourse
Answer : B

7. What is false concerning acute glomerulonephritis?
A. manifested as a sudden onset of hematuria, proteinuria, oliguria, edema, hypertension, and RBC casts in the urine
B. post-streptococcus GN has an incubation period of 1-3 weeks with specific strains of group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus
C. the triad of sinusitis, pulmonary infiltrates, and nephritis, suggests Wegener granulomatosis
D. C3, C4, ESR and antistreptolysin O titer are increased
Answer : D

8. Which of the following does NOT cause unresolved bacteriuria?
A. giant staghorn stone
B. perivesical abscess with fistula to the bladder
C. bacterial resistance
D. self-inflicted infection
Answer : B

9. What is (are) the cause(s) of recurrent community acquired UTI in women?
A. uncontrolled DM
B. sexual activity with multiple partners
C. high vaginal receptivity to bacterial adherence
D. all of the above
Answer : D

10. What factor(s) increase(s) the risk of bacterial colonization in the prostate?
A. acute epididymitis
B. indwelling urethral catheters
C. transurethral surgery
D. all of the above
Answer : D

11. Irritative LUTS and dyspareunia in postmenopausal women are most likely to be due to:
A. giggle incontinence
B. estrogen deficiency
C. cystitis glandularis
D. cystitis cystica
Answer : B

12. UPOINT system for phenotype categorization:
A. categorizes CP-CPPS, IC, and painful bladder syndrome based on 5 etiological principles
B. meant to classify CP-CPPS and IC patients into 6 domains
C. helps establish a reliable diagnosis of CP/CPPS or IC
D. the diagnostic scores of UPOINT depend on cystoscopy, TRUS, urine analysis and culture of uncommon microbes
Answer : B

13. What is false regarding prostatic abscesses?
A. clinically, cannot be differentiated from acute bacterial prostatitis
B. medical management is often unsuccessful
C. it harbors prostate cancer in approximately 4.3% of cases
D. management include suprapubic urinary diversion
Answer : C

14. During the initial 3-month period of HIV infection, what would be the best diagnostic lab test?
A. viral load assay
B. western blot analysis
C. southern blot analysis
D. HIV-1/HIV-2 serology assay
Answer : A

15. What is false regarding pediatric renal parenchyma scarring?
A. chronic pyelonephritis and HTN lead to ESRD in 10% of the cases
B. neonatal symptoms of UTI are vague and non-specific, that delay the diagnosis and end in more scarring
C. despite adequate treatment, scarring continues after an attack of pyelonephritis as a chronic immune reaction against renal tubules
D. neonates have low intrarenal pelvic pressure, that predisposes to ascending infections
Answer : D

16. What is false concerning cystitis glandularis?
A. rarely, the urothelial cell nests show a central lumen lined by glandular epithelium
B. In some cases, it may form polypoid masses that mimic urothelial neoplasms
C. It might appear as multinodular exophytic mass seen on cystoscopy
D. cystitis cystica and cystitis glandularis frequently coexist in the same specimen
Answer : A

17. What is true concerning bacterial colonization in the bladder?
A. is always asymptomatic
B. it shows a serological immune antibody response
C. is a common cause of sterile pyuria
D. typically, at this stage, the body demonstrates bacteriuria
Answer : A

18. What is the preferred antibiotic for BPS/IC cases?
A. rifampicin
B. doxycycline
C. azithromycin
D none of the above
Answer : D

19. What group of patients should be treated for UTI only when symptomatic?
A. patients with indwelling catheters
B. neurogenic bladder patients on CIC
C. pregnant women
D. children under 5 years
Answer : A

20. What condition(s) could occur in schistosomal ureter?
A. beading of the lower ureteral segment
B. ureteral fibrosis and calcifications of the distal ureter
C. stricture at the uretero-vesical junction
D. all of the above
Answer : D

21. What is false concerning emphysematous cystitis?
A. the hallmark in the diagnosis is the cystoscopic findings
B. risk factors include transplant recipients
C. CT shows intramural and/or intraluminal gas in the bladder
D. requires surgical debridement and probably cystectomy
Answer : A

22. What are the sequelae of recurrent uncomplicated UTI in young women?
A. minimal
B. chronic persistent infections
C. chronic relapsing infections
D. bouts of chronic pyelonephritis
Answer : A

23. What is false in the treatment and prevention of STDs?
A. antibiotic therapy is recommended for affected individuals with documented trichomonal infection and sexual partners even if asymptomatic
B. empirical treatment for gonococcal urethritis should cover chlamydia trachomatis
C. consistent and proper usage of condoms is estimated to prevent HIV transmission by approximately 80 to 95%
D. vaccinations are available for the prevention of human papillomavirus, N. gonorrhea, chlamydia trachomatis
Answer : D

24. What is false concerning UTI in long-term care facilities?
A. in catheterized individuals, entry of bacteria into the bladder is facilitated by the bacterial glycocalyx biofilm
B. infection cannot be reliably distinguished from bacteriuria by lab tests
C. co-trimoxazole is the preferred antibiotic for empiric therapy
D. symptomatic UTI may be a diagnosis of exclusion
Answer : C

25. What could cause unresolved bacteriuria?
A. drug resistance
B. non-compliance
C. the presence of persistent pathology
D. all of the above
Answer : D

26. What is true concerning the definition of UTI in women, based on culture results from a suprapubic aspirate of urine?
A. any amount of uropathogen grown in culture indicates UTI
B. for cystitis, more than 1000 CFU/mL indicates UTI
C. for pyelonephritis, more than 10,000 CFU/mL indicates UTI
D. for asymptomatic bacteriuria, more than 100,000 CFU/mL indicates UTI
Answer : A

27. What is false concerning renal hydatid cysts?
A. might rupture into the collecting system causing (hydatiduria)and renal colic
B. are formed by the eggs of the tapeworm Echinococcus granulosus
C. most cysts are asymptomatic but might manifest as flank mass, dull pain, or hematuria
D. the most reliable diagnostic test uses partially purified hydatid arc 5 antigens in a double-diffusion test
Answer : B

28. What is false concerning acute pyelonephritis?
A. CBC reveals leucocytosis with predominance of neutrophils
B. contrast CT reveals one or more focal wedge-like swollen regions of the kidney parenchyma, sparing the cortex, and demonstrating reduced enhancement rim sign
C. in children, recurrent acute pyelonephritis might lead to renal scarring
D. in pregnancy, recurrent acute pyelonephritis might lead to preterm labor
Answer : B

29. What is true regarding chronic epididymitis symptomatology?
A. pain is dull aching in the scrotum, perineum, inner thighs, and lower abdomen
B. dysuria, frequency, and/or urgency
C. long-standing (> 6 weeks) history of scrotal pain, and tenderness
D. low grade fever, malaise, and urethral discharge
Answer : C

30. What is the laboratory differentiation between type III-a and type III-b prostatitis?
A. the cytological examination of the urine and/or EPS
B. transrectal ultrasonographic examination
C. the presence of ?10 WBCs/HPF in the urine with negative culture in type III-b
D. the positive urine culture, and negative EPS support type III-a
Answer : A

31. What is true concerning granulomatous inflammation of the prostate?
A. is a common cause of elevated PSA level
B. might follow BCG treatment
C. is sequelae of untreated type III-b prostatitis
D. shows homogenous enhancement following Gd-DTPA on prostate MRI
Answer : B

32. What is the mortality rate of emphysematous pyelonephritis?
A. 43%
B. 53%
C. 63%
D. 73%
Answer : A

33. What is true concerning HIV infection?
A. HIV is a retrovirus that infects B-cells and dendritic cells
B. circumcised men are at lower risk for HIV infection
C. HPV infection increases the risk for cancers in HIV patients by 6.3 times
D. plasma HIV RNA load is a predictor of disease remission
Answer : B

34. What is false concerning esinophilic cystitis?
A. probably due to antibody/antigen reaction
B. has no diagnostic findings on cystoscopy
C. has no specific medical therapy
D. on histology, Von Brunn`s nests appear invaginating the urothelium into the lamina propria
Answer : D

35. What is true concerning the treatment of catheter associated bacteriuria?
A. should be flushed frequently, but no antibiotic is advised
B. should be treated if febrile UTI has developed
C. should be treated only if urine culture is positive
D. should be treted once the catheter is removed
Answer : B

36. What is false concerning inverted papilloma of the bladder?
A. It is an endophytic tumor of the transitional urothelium
B. harbors p53 gene mutations
C. presents with hematuria, dysuria, and irritative voiding
D. the lesion requires transurethral resection
Answer : B

37. Using low-dose prophylactic or suppressive antimicrobials might be an option in treating the following type of prostatitis:
A. acute bacterial prostatitis presenting with abscess formation
B. recurrent or refractory chronic bacterial prostatitis
C. asymptomatic prostatitis with pyuria resistant to common antimicrobials
D. curiously, chronic inflammatory prostatitis could respond to low-dose suppressive antibiotic
Answer : B

38. HIV infection increases the incidence of the following cancers, EXCEPT:
A. Kaposi sarcoma,
B. Hodgkin lymphoma
C. non-Hodgkin lymphoma
D. cervical cancer
Answer : B

39. What is false regarding malakoplakia?
A. is an uncommon granulomatous disease that affect the skin and/or urinary bladder
B. it might be due to a disturbed function of B lymphocytes
C. characterized by the presence of basophilic inclusion structure (Michaelis-Gutmann body)
D. it might be due to a defective phagolysosomal activity of monocytes or macrophages
Answer : B

40. In males, HIV infection increases the incidence of the following genitourinary tumors:
A. testicular
B. renal
C. penile
D. all of the above
Answer : D

41. What are the most commonly affected organs by genitourinary tuberculosis?
A. kidneys, prostate and epididymi
B. bladder, ureters and renal pelvis
C. vasa, scrotum and adrenals
D. testes, bladder neck and seminal vesicles
Answer : A

42. What is false concerning HIV infection?
A. AIDS patients in active infection show low CD4 + T-cell count
B. the diagnosis is confirmed by positive anti-HIV-1, anti-HIV-2 antibodies
C. patients receiving antiviral therapy could still be infectious
D. herpes simplex virus increases HIV replication in infected persons
Answer : B

43. What type of cells is implicated most in the pathogenesis of BPS/IC?
A. histocytes
B. T lymphocytes
C. mast cells
D. B lymphocytes
Answer : C

44. What is false concerning corpora amylacea of the prostate?
A. are premalignant, and found in 1-6% of prostate biopsies
B. are small hyaline masses of unknown significance found in the prostate gland
C. they are degenerate cells or thickened secretions in the prostate ducts
D. might appear as prostate calcifications on X-ray KUB
Answer : A

45. What is true concerning ovarian vein syndrome?
A. manifests as recurrent renal colics due to ureteral obstruction
B. treatment is surgical mobilization of ureter and ligation of the vein
C. commonly, occurs at the left side
D. the pain worsens on sitting upright and during pregnancy
Answer : B

46. What are the most indicative symptoms of chronic pyelonephritis?
A. fever and chills
B. suprapubic pain and pyuria
C. flank pain and tenderness
D. none of the above
Answer : D

47. What is false concerning the presentation of prostatitis syndrome?
A. type I could harbor prostate abscess
B. type II presents as intermittent urinary tract infections
C. type III-a presentation might include psychological complaints
D. between 10-15% of men with type IV, have pus cells in their semen but no symptoms
Answer : C

48. What is NOT a poor clinical practice on caring for urethral catheters?
A. taking urine samples by draining the urine bag
B. daily cleansing the external meatus
C. placing the urine bag on the floor
D. changing the urine bag once it is full
Answer : B

49. What condition does NOT present as an acute loin pain with fever and marked flank tenderness?
A. ascending UTI causing acute lobar nephronia
B. acute pyelonephritis in a transplanted kidney
C. infected renal subcapsular hematoma
D. perinephric abscess causing septicemia
Answer : B

50. What antimicrobial agent treats UTI and does NOT alter the gut flora?
A. trimethoprim- sulfamethoxazole
B. fluoroquinolones
C. aminoglycosides
D. nitrofurantoins
Answer : D