SSC MTS - Urology Basic Science 1000+ MCQ [Solved] PDF Download

1. Which drug does NOT result in urinary retention?
A. terazosin, antihypertensive
B. benzodiazepines, psychotropic medicine
C. levodopa, anti-Parkinsonism medicine
D. brimonidine, glaucoma eye drops
Answer : A

2. What nerve provides the major neural supply to the striated urinary sphincter and levator ani muscle?
A. somatic innervations
B. sympathetic fibers from T11 - L2
C. the pudendal nerve
D. the obturator nerve
Answer : C

3. At which condition is alpha-fetoprotein most frequently elevated?
A. infiltrating ductal carcinoma of the breast
B. seminoma
C. hepatocellular carcinoma
D. malignant melanoma
Answer : C

4. Which of the following is false regarding zona glomeruloza?
A. the most superficial layer of the adrenal cortex
B. responses to increased potassium levels, renin or decreased renal blood flow
C. it causes pheochromocytoma
D. secretes aldosterone
Answer : C

5. Which of the following explains infertility in liver cirrhosis male patients?
A. decrease plasma estradiol levels
B. increase plasma testosterone-estradiol-binding globulin levels
C. suppression of suprarenal androgens
D. exaggerated pituitary response to feedback hormones
Answer : B

6. Which class of the following agents does NOT impair spermatogenesis?
A. alkylating agents
B. phenothiazines
C. antiandrogens
D. prostaglandins
Answer : B

7. What causes Cushing`s disease is:
A. bilateral adrenal hyperplasia
B. pituitary over secretion of ACTH
C. exogenous administration of glucocorticoids
D. immune-mediated disease
Answer : B

8. Which of the following is NOT a side effect of hydrochlorothiazide?
A. hypercholesterolemia
B. hyperuricemia
C. hypoglycemia
D. hypercalcemia
Answer : C

9. What causes pink diaper syndrome is (are):
A. Staphylococcus epidermidis in the urine
B. dried urate crystals on the diaper
C. Adenovirus 11 in the urine
D. Candidiasis in the urine
Answer : B

10. Which microbe causes red diaper syndrome?
A. Serratia marcescens
B. Streptococcus pyogenes
C. Clostridium difficile
D. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
Answer : A

11. What fascial layer(s) cover(s) the prostate?
A. Denonvilliers fascia
B. prostatic fascia
C. levator fascia
D. all of the above
Answer : D

12. What is the most likely cause of large scrotal hematoma in neonates?
A. clotting factor VIII deficiency
B. clotting factor IX deficiency
C. breech delivery
D. scrotal cavernous haemangioma
Answer : C

13. On tracing the IVU dye down, in a dilated ureter, the dilation stops at a level then continues as a normal calibre ureter. What could the pathology be?
A. lower ureteral stricture
B. ureteral valve
C. modified Lich-Gregoire ureteral reimplantation
D. residual dilation of hydroureter
Answer : B

14. Which antibiotic is the best to treat soft tissue infection with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) in hospitalized patients?
A. vancomycin
B. cefotaxime
C. penicillin G
D. tobramycin
Answer : A

15. How many renal papillae are there in a typical kidney?
A. 4 to 6
B. 7 to 9
C. 10 to 12
D. 13 to 14
Answer : B

16. Which lab results indicate poor prognosis of male infertility?
A. azoospermia; normal FSH; increase LH
B. azoospermia; decrease FSH; normal LH
C. oligospermia; increase FSH; normal LH
D. oligospermia; normal FSH; decrease LH
Answer : C

17. Which of the following contributes second to the seminal fluid by volume?
A. seminal vesicles
B. the prostate
C. testes
D. bulbourethral glands
Answer : B

18. What does apoptosis mean?
A. programmed cell death
B. new vascular formation
C. uninhibited neural stimulation
D. premature muscular contraction
Answer : A

19. By which of the following structures, do the fused lower poles of hoarseshoe kidneys get trapped during embryologic ascent?
A. inferior mesenteric artery
B. superior mesenteric artery
C. celiac artery
D. common iliac artery
Answer : A

20. What type of renal tubular acidosis (RTA) does demonstrate aldosterone resistance?
A. type 1
B. type 2
C. type 3
D. type 4
Answer : D

21. Which agent is safe to kidneys?
A. amoxicillin
B. gentamycin
C. diclofenac
D. herb extract
Answer : A

22. What is the function of PSA in semen?
A. increases semen volume
has antimicrobial activity
C. liquefies the seminal coagulum
D. decreases semen pH
Answer : C

23. What causes pure testicular feminization is:
A. over estrogen synthesis
B. defective end-organ androgen response
C. extra X chromosome (XXY)
D. failure of genital ridge regression
Answer : B

24. Where is Santorini plexus located?
A. at either side of the prostate
B. in the pubo-prostatic space
C. anterior to the seminal vesicles
D. posterior to the vaso-epididymal junction
Answer : B

25. Which part of the prostate is traversed by the ejaculatory duct:
A. central zone
B. peripheral zone
C. transitional zone
D. fibromuscular stroma
Answer : A

26. What could cause autonomic dysreflexia?
A. full bladder or rectum
B. tooth extraction
C. hypertension medications
D. uncontrolled diabetes mellitus
Answer : A

27. Renal blood flow is autoregulated by:
A. sympathetic nervous system
B. parasympathetic nervous system
C. urinary output
D. afferent arteriolar resistance
Answer : D

28. Which of the following does asymptomatic hematuria workup include?
A. cystoscopy
B. CT urography
C. urine cytology
D. all of the above
Answer : D

29. What antibiotic could result in red man syndrome?
A. vancomycin
B. clindamycin
C. streptomycin
D. tobramycin
Answer : A

30. Which organism is capable of proliferation in the urine and causing urethritis?
A. Ureaplasma urealyticum
B. Chlamydia trachomatis
C. E. coli
D. Neisseria gonorrhea
Answer : A

31. To which region does pain, from the left mid ureter, refer to?
A. the loin region
B. the inguinal region
C. the umbilical region
D. the penis or clitoris
Answer : B

32. Which statement is false concerning microhematuria?
A. malignancy is identified in patients presenting with microhematuria more than in patients presenting with gross hematuria
B. microscopic hematuria is defined as > 3 red blood cells per high powered field (RBC/hpf) on a single specimen
C. warrants full hematuria workup
D. history of cigarette smoking is of significance
Answer : A

33. What are the abnormalities that might accompany complete ureteral duplications?
A. reflux to the upper pole ureter, obstruction to the lower pole ureter
B. reflux to the lower pole ureter, obstruction to the upper pole ureter
C. left ureteropelvic junction obstruction, right ureterocele
D. right ureteropelvic junction obstruction, left ureterocele
Answer : B

34. Which statement is false concerning capacitation of spermatozoa?
A. occurs after acrosome reaction
B. entails removal of a glycoprotein layer
C. it is a biochemical event of sperm maturation
D. changes occur in the female genital tract
Answer : A

35. To which group of lymph nodes do tumors at the anterior superior area of the bladder, first, drain?
A. hypogastric
B. internal iliac
C. external iliac
D. lateral sacral
Answer : C

36. At what month of intra-uterine life do testes descend into the scrotum with the aid of the intra-abdominal pressure and the gubernacula?
A. sixth
B. seventh
C. eighth
D. ninth
Answer : B

37. Serum testosterone should be measured:
A. at mid-day
B. at the hour of sleep
C. in the morning
D. late afternoon
Answer : C

38. What class of antibiotics might cause vestibular and/or auditory impairment?
A. aminoglycosides
B. ?antipseudomonal penicillins
C. cephalosporins
D. fluoroquinolones
Answer : A

39. Which statement is false concerning the epididymis?
A. each epididymis can be palpable at the postero-lateral surface of the testis
B. has 3 parts; head, body, and tail
C. new batches of sperms stay in the epididymis around 2 days for maturation
D. shares the same blood supply of the testis
Answer : C

40. All of the following develop from the mesonephric ducts, EXCEPT:
A. vas deferens
B. seminal vesicles
C. appendix epididymis
D. appendix testis
Answer : D

41. How many days does spermatogenesis take in the man?
A. 16
B. 32
C. 64
D. 90
Answer : C

42. From where does the main parasympathetic efferent innervation to the pelvic plexus arise?
A. S1
B. S2-S4
C. T11-L2
D. L3-S1
Answer : B

43. Which of the prostate medications could result in retrograde ejaculation?
A. tamsulosin
B. doxazosin
C. dutasteride
D. alfuzosin
Answer : A

44. What do urine tests examine to detect hematuria?
A. catalase activity of erythrocytes
B. peroxidae activity of erythrocytes
C. lyase activity of erythrocytes
D. none of the above
Answer : B

45. What is false concerning the urinary bladder anatomy?
A. as it distends, it peels off the peritoneum from the abdominal wall
B. the interureteric ridge is located between the 2 ureteric orifices and the uvula vesicae
C. Waldeyer`s sheath covers only the distal ureter and forms the deep trigone
D. in adults, it is percussible over the abdomen when contains at least 150 ml
Answer : B

46. Which statement is false concerning the gubernaculua?
A. degenerate after birth
B. called the caudal genital ligaments
C. help guide the testes down through the inguinal canals
D. represent undifferentiated mesenchyme
Answer : A

47. Which statement is NOT related to Klinefelter syndrome?
A. sterility is the rule
B. has a considerable short life span
C. treatment requires testicular microdissection and sperm extraction
D. 47 XXY karyotype
Answer : B

48. What is the appropriate intravenous maintenance fluid for a 16 kg girl?
A. 43 ml/hr of normal saline
B. 78 ml/hr of ¼ normal saline
C. 69 ml/hr of ½ normal saline
D. 54 ml/hr of ¼ normal saline
Answer : D

49. Regarding multicystic kidneys, at what age does the compensatory renal growth end?
A. at birth
B. 2 years
C. at puberty
D. none of the above
Answer : B

50. Which of the following hormones, primarily, controls spermatogenesis?
A. GnRH
B. testosterone
C. LH
D. FSH
Answer : B