Urologic infections and inflammations 1000+ MCQ with answer for JEE Main
Thursday 9th of March 2023
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1. What type of scrotal ulcers is painless, punched out, with yellowish grey floor?
A. tuberculous ulcer
B. malignant ulcer
C. gummatous ulcers
D. traumatic ulcer
Answer : C
A. tuberculous ulcer
B. malignant ulcer
C. gummatous ulcers
D. traumatic ulcer
Answer : C
2. Which of the following has NO role in bacterial colonization in the prostate?
A. intra-prostatic ductal reflux
B. paraphimosis
C. specific blood groups
D. unprotected anal intercourse
Answer : B
A. intra-prostatic ductal reflux
B. paraphimosis
C. specific blood groups
D. unprotected anal intercourse
Answer : B
3. A 60 yrs. man underwent TURP for, only, obstructive LUTS. Histology of prostate chips reveals prostatitis. What NIH type of prostatitis would it be?
A. type I
B. type II
C. type III
D. type IV
Answer : D
A. type I
B. type II
C. type III
D. type IV
Answer : D
4. What is false concerning emphysematous cystitis?
A. the hallmark in the diagnosis is the cystoscopic findings
B. risk factors include transplant recipients
C. CT shows intramural and/or intraluminal gas in the bladder
D. requires surgical debridement and probably cystectomy
Answer : A
A. the hallmark in the diagnosis is the cystoscopic findings
B. risk factors include transplant recipients
C. CT shows intramural and/or intraluminal gas in the bladder
D. requires surgical debridement and probably cystectomy
Answer : A
5. What is false concerning Xanthogranulomatous Pyelonephritis?
A. is most commonly associated with Proteus or E. coli infection
B. is characterized by lipid-laden foamy macrophages
C. the overall prognosis is poor
D. it might involve adjacent structures or organs
Answer : C
A. is most commonly associated with Proteus or E. coli infection
B. is characterized by lipid-laden foamy macrophages
C. the overall prognosis is poor
D. it might involve adjacent structures or organs
Answer : C
6. What is true regarding honeymoon cystitis?
A. is a self-limiting infection where antibiotics are not required
B. is exclusively for UTI experienced by a girl after sexual intercourse on her wedding night
C. post-coital voiding has no value in the occurrence of the infection
D. self-initiated medication helps control the infection
Answer : D
A. is a self-limiting infection where antibiotics are not required
B. is exclusively for UTI experienced by a girl after sexual intercourse on her wedding night
C. post-coital voiding has no value in the occurrence of the infection
D. self-initiated medication helps control the infection
Answer : D
7. What is essential on diagnosing bladder pain syndrome BPS/IC?
A. sterile pyuria on 3 consecutive cultures
B. the presence of glomerulations and/or Hunner`s ulcer on endoscopy
C. pain and discomfort related to the bladder
D. urgency and frequency with no documented infection
Answer : C
A. sterile pyuria on 3 consecutive cultures
B. the presence of glomerulations and/or Hunner`s ulcer on endoscopy
C. pain and discomfort related to the bladder
D. urgency and frequency with no documented infection
Answer : C
8. A 48 yrs. woman presents with recurrent cystitis. Cystoscopy showed a raised bladder lesion. Biopsies from the lesion reveals Von Hansemann histiocytes, and Michaelis-Gutmann bodies. What is the treatment?
A. sulfonamide for several months
B. TUR of the bladder lesion followed by proper staging
C. radical cystectomy and urinary diversion
D. intravesical installation of mitomycin without irradiation
Answer : A
A. sulfonamide for several months
B. TUR of the bladder lesion followed by proper staging
C. radical cystectomy and urinary diversion
D. intravesical installation of mitomycin without irradiation
Answer : A
9. No need for radiologic studies for recurrent UTI in:
A. children
B. the elderly
C. men
D. women
Answer : D
A. children
B. the elderly
C. men
D. women
Answer : D
10. What is the most significant biological difference in women susceptibility to UTI?
A. adherence of bacteria to vaginal cells
B. vaginal dryness
C. O serogroup
D. vaginal pH
Answer : A
A. adherence of bacteria to vaginal cells
B. vaginal dryness
C. O serogroup
D. vaginal pH
Answer : A
11. What condition(s) could occur in schistosomal ureter?
A. beading of the lower ureteral segment
B. ureteral fibrosis and calcifications of the distal ureter
C. stricture at the uretero-vesical junction
D. all of the above
Answer : D
A. beading of the lower ureteral segment
B. ureteral fibrosis and calcifications of the distal ureter
C. stricture at the uretero-vesical junction
D. all of the above
Answer : D
12. What is false regarding biopsy-taking from interstitial cystitis bladder?
A. no pathognomonic histology for interstitial cystitis
B. basically, biopsies are performed to exclude carcinomas and other varieties of cystitis
C. diagnostic biopsies include the presence of discrete micro-ulcers and increased numbers of mast cells in the detrusor muscle or submucosa
D. none of the above
Answer : C
A. no pathognomonic histology for interstitial cystitis
B. basically, biopsies are performed to exclude carcinomas and other varieties of cystitis
C. diagnostic biopsies include the presence of discrete micro-ulcers and increased numbers of mast cells in the detrusor muscle or submucosa
D. none of the above
Answer : C
13. What is false concerning epididymitis?
A. should be distinguished from testicular torsion in the emergency setting
B. viral epididymitis is commoner in the elderly
C. chronic epididymitis might complicate BPH
D. chronic epididymitis might require epididymectomy
Answer : B
A. should be distinguished from testicular torsion in the emergency setting
B. viral epididymitis is commoner in the elderly
C. chronic epididymitis might complicate BPH
D. chronic epididymitis might require epididymectomy
Answer : B
14. What is the commonest intra-scrotal pathology in AIDS patients?
A. beaded vas deferens
B. testicular micrilithiasis
C. testicular atrophy
D. epididymal granuloma
Answer : C
A. beaded vas deferens
B. testicular micrilithiasis
C. testicular atrophy
D. epididymal granuloma
Answer : C
15. What condition causes sterile pyuria?
A. urethral infection with trichomonas vaginalis
B. bladder infection with adenovirus
C. Kawasakis disease
D. all of the above
Answer : D
A. urethral infection with trichomonas vaginalis
B. bladder infection with adenovirus
C. Kawasakis disease
D. all of the above
Answer : D
16. Histologically, the pathognomonic finding of Fournier gangrene include:
A. necrosis of the superficial and deep fascial planes
B. fibrinoid thrombosis of the nutrient arterioles
C. polymorphonuclear cell infiltration
D. all of the above
Answer : D
A. necrosis of the superficial and deep fascial planes
B. fibrinoid thrombosis of the nutrient arterioles
C. polymorphonuclear cell infiltration
D. all of the above
Answer : D
17. Which of the following conditions does NOT cause bacterial persistence?
A. perivesical abscess with fistula to bladder
B. acute tubular necrosis
C. renal papillary necrosis
D. xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis
Answer : C
A. perivesical abscess with fistula to bladder
B. acute tubular necrosis
C. renal papillary necrosis
D. xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis
Answer : C
18. What is false concerning Brucellosis epididymitis?
A. commonly presents with scrotal pain, swelling, fever, and leucocytosis
B. epididymo-orchitis is the most frequent genitourinary complication of brucellosis
C. epididymo-orchitis occurs in 10-15% of male patients with brucellosis
D. treatment includes doxycycline and rifampicin for 6-8 weeks
Answer : A
A. commonly presents with scrotal pain, swelling, fever, and leucocytosis
B. epididymo-orchitis is the most frequent genitourinary complication of brucellosis
C. epididymo-orchitis occurs in 10-15% of male patients with brucellosis
D. treatment includes doxycycline and rifampicin for 6-8 weeks
Answer : A
19. What is false concerning the presentation of prostatitis sndrome?
A. type I could harbor prostate abscess
B. type II presents as intermittent urinary tract infections
C. type III-a presentation might include psychological complaints
D. between 10-15% of men with type IV, have pus cells in their semen but no symptoms
Answer : C
A. type I could harbor prostate abscess
B. type II presents as intermittent urinary tract infections
C. type III-a presentation might include psychological complaints
D. between 10-15% of men with type IV, have pus cells in their semen but no symptoms
Answer : C
20. When comparing nosocomial to community-acquired UTI, the latter is:
A. 45% are caused by E. coli
B. related to an indwelling urinary catheter in approximately 40% of cases
C. responds fairly to oral antibiotics
D. tends to report higher antibiotic resistance
Answer : C
A. 45% are caused by E. coli
B. related to an indwelling urinary catheter in approximately 40% of cases
C. responds fairly to oral antibiotics
D. tends to report higher antibiotic resistance
Answer : C
21. What are the most indicative symptoms of chronic pyelonephritis?
A. fever and chills
B. suprapubic pain and pyuria
C. flank pain and tenderness
D. none of the above
Answer : D
A. fever and chills
B. suprapubic pain and pyuria
C. flank pain and tenderness
D. none of the above
Answer : D
22. What is false concerning acute glomerulonephritis?
A. manifested as a sudden onset of hematuria, proteinuria, oliguria, edema, hypertension, and RBC casts in the urine
B. post-streptococcus GN has an incubation period of 1-3 weeks with specific strains of group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus
C. the triad of sinusitis, pulmonary infiltrates, and nephritis, suggests Wegener granulomatosis
D. C3, C4, ESR and antistreptolysin O titer are increased
Answer : D
A. manifested as a sudden onset of hematuria, proteinuria, oliguria, edema, hypertension, and RBC casts in the urine
B. post-streptococcus GN has an incubation period of 1-3 weeks with specific strains of group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus
C. the triad of sinusitis, pulmonary infiltrates, and nephritis, suggests Wegener granulomatosis
D. C3, C4, ESR and antistreptolysin O titer are increased
Answer : D
23. What is false concerning post UTI renal scarring in pediatrics?
A. the incidence of scarring following a single episode of febrile UTI is 4.5%
B. intra-renal reflux is common in convex papillae
C. scarring and chronic pyelonephritis lead to hypertension in 10-20%
D. scarring is best detected and followed up by DMSA
Answer : B
A. the incidence of scarring following a single episode of febrile UTI is 4.5%
B. intra-renal reflux is common in convex papillae
C. scarring and chronic pyelonephritis lead to hypertension in 10-20%
D. scarring is best detected and followed up by DMSA
Answer : B
24. What is true concerning scrotal abscesses?
A. could be a complication of chronic epididymitis and orchalgia
B. testicular torsion must be excluded
C. infected hair follicles and scrotal lacerations are predisposing factors
D. urethral discharge is not uncommon presentation
Answer : C
A. could be a complication of chronic epididymitis and orchalgia
B. testicular torsion must be excluded
C. infected hair follicles and scrotal lacerations are predisposing factors
D. urethral discharge is not uncommon presentation
Answer : C
25. What is true regarding Xanthogranulomatous Pyelonephritis?
A. CT shows the characteristic bear paw sign
B. it is an infected, obstructed, poorly functioning kidney containing stones
C. nephrectomy is the treatment
D. all of the above
Answer : D
A. CT shows the characteristic bear paw sign
B. it is an infected, obstructed, poorly functioning kidney containing stones
C. nephrectomy is the treatment
D. all of the above
Answer : D
26. What antimicrobial agent treats UTI and does NOT alter the gut flora?
A. trimethoprim- sulfamethoxazole
B. fluoroquinolones
C. aminoglycosides
D. nitrofurantoins
Answer : D
A. trimethoprim- sulfamethoxazole
B. fluoroquinolones
C. aminoglycosides
D. nitrofurantoins
Answer : D
27. What is the most common serotype of HPV associated with squamous cell carcinoma of the penis?
A. 16
B. 18
C. 22
D. 12
Answer : A
A. 16
B. 18
C. 22
D. 12
Answer : A
28. What condition does NOT present as an acute loin pain with fever and marked flank tenderness?
A. ascending UTI causing acute lobar nephronia
B. acute pyelonephritis in a transplanted kidney
C. infected renal subcapsular hematoma
D. perinephric abscess causing septicemia
Answer : B
A. ascending UTI causing acute lobar nephronia
B. acute pyelonephritis in a transplanted kidney
C. infected renal subcapsular hematoma
D. perinephric abscess causing septicemia
Answer : B
29. What is the ideal antibiotic class for self-start therapy on treating recurrent cystitis in a 32 yrs. married woman?
A. aminopenicillins
B. fluoroquinolones
C. aminoglycosides
D. nitrofurantoins
Answer : B
A. aminopenicillins
B. fluoroquinolones
C. aminoglycosides
D. nitrofurantoins
Answer : B
30. What could NOT cause recurrent UTI in a 25 yrs. woman?
A. bladder neck suspension surgery
B. chronic constipation
C. poor genital hygiene
D. contraceptive diaphragm
Answer : A
A. bladder neck suspension surgery
B. chronic constipation
C. poor genital hygiene
D. contraceptive diaphragm
Answer : A
31. What is false concerning Chlamydia trachomatis urethritis in males:
A. produces yellow whitish, scanty, frothy urethral discharge
B. shows gram (+), extracellular diplococcic
C. infection could be contracted from the spouses eyes
D. responds fairly to azithromycin
Answer : B
A. produces yellow whitish, scanty, frothy urethral discharge
B. shows gram (+), extracellular diplococcic
C. infection could be contracted from the spouses eyes
D. responds fairly to azithromycin
Answer : B
32. What is false regarding the etiology and treatment of orchialgia syndrome?
A. small indirect inguinal hernia may irritate the genital branch of genitofemoral nerve causing orchialgia
B. might respond to a selective nerve block
C. the recommended treatment is orchiectomy with implantation of a testicular prosthesis
D. psychotherapy and stress management might alleviate the pain
Answer : C
A. small indirect inguinal hernia may irritate the genital branch of genitofemoral nerve causing orchialgia
B. might respond to a selective nerve block
C. the recommended treatment is orchiectomy with implantation of a testicular prosthesis
D. psychotherapy and stress management might alleviate the pain
Answer : C
33. What is false regarding viral cystitis?
A. in pediatrics, adenovirus types 11 and 21 could result in hemorrhagic cystitis
B. immunosuppressed children are especially susceptible to Cytomegalovirus and Adenoviruses 7, 21, and 35
C. in pediatrics, acute viral cystitis might present as acute retention of urine
D. classically, treatment should be culture-specific
Answer : D
A. in pediatrics, adenovirus types 11 and 21 could result in hemorrhagic cystitis
B. immunosuppressed children are especially susceptible to Cytomegalovirus and Adenoviruses 7, 21, and 35
C. in pediatrics, acute viral cystitis might present as acute retention of urine
D. classically, treatment should be culture-specific
Answer : D
34. Under which surgical wound classification, does diagnostic cystoscopy under sterile technique fit?
A. dirty - infected
B. contaminated
C. clean - contaminated
D. clean
Answer : C
A. dirty - infected
B. contaminated
C. clean - contaminated
D. clean
Answer : C
35. What is the most virulent factor for bacterial adherence?
A. P blood group
B. fimbria
C. pili
D. hemolysin
Answer : C
A. P blood group
B. fimbria
C. pili
D. hemolysin
Answer : C
36. What group of patients should be treated for UTI only when symptomatic?
A. patients with indwelling catheters
B. neurogenic bladder patients on CIC
C. pregnant women
D. children under 5 years
Answer : A
A. patients with indwelling catheters
B. neurogenic bladder patients on CIC
C. pregnant women
D. children under 5 years
Answer : A
37. In which segmented voided bladder (VB) specimen, the diagnosis of chronic prostatitis is confirmed?
A. VB1 and VB3
B. prostatic secretions and the VB3
C. prostatic secretions and the VB2
D. prostatic secretions and the VB1
Answer : B
A. VB1 and VB3
B. prostatic secretions and the VB3
C. prostatic secretions and the VB2
D. prostatic secretions and the VB1
Answer : B
38. What are the most commonly affected organs by genitourinary tuberculosis?
A. kidneys, prostate and epididymi
B. bladder, ureters and renal pelvis
C. vasa, scrotum and adrenals
D. testes, bladder neck and seminal vesicles
Answer : A
A. kidneys, prostate and epididymi
B. bladder, ureters and renal pelvis
C. vasa, scrotum and adrenals
D. testes, bladder neck and seminal vesicles
Answer : A
39. What does NOT predispose to acute epididymitis is:
A. TUR ejaculatory duct
B. prolonged urethral catheterization
C. prostatic biopsy
D. vas ligation
Answer : C
A. TUR ejaculatory duct
B. prolonged urethral catheterization
C. prostatic biopsy
D. vas ligation
Answer : C
40. Which of the following does NOT cause sterile pyouria?
A. inadequately treated UTI
B. renal papillary necrosis
C. acute emphysematous pyelonephritis
D. urinary tract tuberculosis
Answer : C
A. inadequately treated UTI
B. renal papillary necrosis
C. acute emphysematous pyelonephritis
D. urinary tract tuberculosis
Answer : C
41. What factor(s) increase(s) the risk of bacterial colonization in the prostate?
A. acute epididymitis
B. indwelling urethral catheters
C. transurethral surgery
D. all of the above
Answer : D
A. acute epididymitis
B. indwelling urethral catheters
C. transurethral surgery
D. all of the above
Answer : D
42. What is false regarding urethral syndrome in postmenopausal women?
A. pH of vaginal secretions increases after menopause
B. estrogen deficiency manifests as trophic urethritis and atrophic vaginitis
C. topical conjugated estrogen replacement carries a significant risk of breast and endometrial cancers
D. manifestations might include obstructive symptoms and non-infectious cystitis
Answer : C
A. pH of vaginal secretions increases after menopause
B. estrogen deficiency manifests as trophic urethritis and atrophic vaginitis
C. topical conjugated estrogen replacement carries a significant risk of breast and endometrial cancers
D. manifestations might include obstructive symptoms and non-infectious cystitis
Answer : C
43. What is true regarding acute pyelonephritis?
A. a cause of obstruction should be sought
B. PCN is placed to decompress the kidney and preserve renal function
C. blood-born staphylococci are commoner than ascending E.coli infections
D. blood and urine cultures must dictate the antibiotic choice from day 1
Answer : A
A. a cause of obstruction should be sought
B. PCN is placed to decompress the kidney and preserve renal function
C. blood-born staphylococci are commoner than ascending E.coli infections
D. blood and urine cultures must dictate the antibiotic choice from day 1
Answer : A
44. What is the likelihood of contracting gonorrheal disease following a single intercourse with an infected woman?
A. 1.7%
B. 7%
C. 17%
D. 71%
Answer : C
A. 1.7%
B. 7%
C. 17%
D. 71%
Answer : C
45. Ureteral dilation in schistosomiasis could be due to:
A. vesicoureteral reflux
B. stenosis of the lower ureter
C. edematous ureteral wall causing deficient peristalsis
D. any of the above
Answer : D
A. vesicoureteral reflux
B. stenosis of the lower ureter
C. edematous ureteral wall causing deficient peristalsis
D. any of the above
Answer : D
46. What is true concerning HIV infection?
A. HIV is a retrovirus that infects B-cells and dendritic cells
B. circumcised men are at lower risk for HIV infection
C. HPV infection increases the risk for cancers in HIV patients by 6.3 times
D. plasma HIV RNA load is a predictor of disease remission
Answer : B
A. HIV is a retrovirus that infects B-cells and dendritic cells
B. circumcised men are at lower risk for HIV infection
C. HPV infection increases the risk for cancers in HIV patients by 6.3 times
D. plasma HIV RNA load is a predictor of disease remission
Answer : B
47. What is false concerning corpora amylacea of the prostate?
A. are premalignant, and found in 1-6% of prostate biopsies
B. are small hyaline masses of unknown significance found in the prostate gland
C. they are degenerate cells or thickened secretions in the prostate ducts
D. might appear as prostate calcifications on X-ray KUB
Answer : A
A. are premalignant, and found in 1-6% of prostate biopsies
B. are small hyaline masses of unknown significance found in the prostate gland
C. they are degenerate cells or thickened secretions in the prostate ducts
D. might appear as prostate calcifications on X-ray KUB
Answer : A
48. What is false regarding cystitis cystica?
A. most cysts appear as filling defects on cystography
B. most often found in the trigone area
C. the cyst lumens contain esinophilic secretions that may have a few inflammatory cells
D. cystitis cystica and cystitis glandularis are reactive urothelial changes
Answer : A
A. most cysts appear as filling defects on cystography
B. most often found in the trigone area
C. the cyst lumens contain esinophilic secretions that may have a few inflammatory cells
D. cystitis cystica and cystitis glandularis are reactive urothelial changes
Answer : A
49. Which of the following factors increases the risk of UTI due to promotion of microbial colonization?
A. neurogenic bladder
B. the use of spermicide
C. urinary catheterization
D. fecal incontinence
Answer : B
A. neurogenic bladder
B. the use of spermicide
C. urinary catheterization
D. fecal incontinence
Answer : B
50. What is the mortality rate of emphysematous pyelonephritis?
A. 43%
B. 53%
C. 63%
D. 73%
Answer : A
A. 43%
B. 53%
C. 63%
D. 73%
Answer : A
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