Urologic infections and inflammations MCQ Solved Paper for NEET

1. What is NOT a complication of mumps orchitis?
A. infertility
B. hypogonadotropic hypogonadism
C. non seminomatous germ cell tumor
D. chronic orchalgia
Answer : C

2. What is false concerning inverted papilloma of the bladder?
A. It is an endophytic tumor of the transitional urothelium
B. harbors p53 gene mutations
C. presents with hematuria, dysuria, and irritative voiding
D. the lesion requires transurethral resection
Answer : B

3. What are the most indicative symptoms of chronic pyelonephritis?
A. fever and chills
B. suprapubic pain and pyuria
C. flank pain and tenderness
D. none of the above
Answer : D

4. A 44 yrs. male presents with recurrent left pyelonephritis and Proteus infection. His kidney is dilated and contains a stone. A renal biopsy showed foamy macrophages with neutrophils and cellular debris. What is the treatment?
A. PCNL after treating the infection
B. cystoscopy and placing a retrograde ureteral stent followed by ESWL
C. perc. nephrostomy and placing antegrade ureteral stent
D. nephrectomy
Answer : D

5. What is false concerning urinary catheter-associated UTI (CAUTI)?
A. once a catheter is placed, the daily incidence of bacteriuria is 3-10%
B. on long-term catheterization, over 90% of patients develop bacteriuria
C. the practice of using urinary catheters to control incontinence in bedridden patients should be discouraged
D. urine bags should be placed on the floor to enhance gravity drainage
Answer : D

6. What is false regarding malakoplakia?
A. is an uncommon granulomatous disease that affect the skin and/or urinary bladder
B. it might be due to a disturbed function of B lymphocytes
C. characterized by the presence of basophilic inclusion structure (Michaelis-Gutmann body)
D. it might be due to a defective phagolysosomal activity of monocytes or macrophages
Answer : B

7. What kind of non-infectious cystitis, do patients with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), likely to develop?
A. cystitis glandularis
B. cystitis cystica
C. esinophilic cystitis
D. cystitis follicularis
Answer : C

8. What is false concerning the management of genitourinary TB?
A. prostatic TB is better drained per rectum before initiating the medications
B. renal TB may require nephroureterectomy
C. peripheral neuritis is a known side effect of isoniazid
D. moxifloxacin might result in tendon rupture
Answer : A

9. What is true regarding contrast CT imaging for a renal abscess?
A. abscess appears as a low attenuation cystic cavity containing gas
B. renal parenchyma around the abscess cavity may show hypo enhancement in nephrogram phase
C. associated fascial and septal thickening are seen with obliteration of perinephric fat
D. all of the above
Answer : D

10. What are the most commonly affected organs by genitourinary tuberculosis?
A. kidneys, prostate and epididymi
B. bladder, ureters and renal pelvis
C. vasa, scrotum and adrenals
D. testes, bladder neck and seminal vesicles
Answer : A

11. What is false concerning renal hydatid cysts?
A. might rupture into the collecting system causing (hydatiduria)and renal colic
B. are formed by the eggs of the tapeworm Echinococcus granulosus
C. most cysts are asymptomatic but might manifest as flank mass, dull pain, or hematuria
D. the most reliable diagnostic test uses partially purified hydatid arc 5 antigens in a double-diffusion test
Answer : B

12. In which segmented voided bladder (VB) specimen, the diagnosis of chronic prostatitis is confirmed?
A. VB1 and VB3
B. prostatic secretions and the VB3
C. prostatic secretions and the VB2
D. prostatic secretions and the VB1
Answer : B

13. What is the most common serotype of HPV associated with squamous cell carcinoma of the penis?
A. 16
B. 18
C. 22
D. 12
Answer : A

14. Which of the following factors increases the risk of UTI due to facilitation of microbial ascent?
A. sexual activity
B. the use of spermicide
C. estrogen depletion
D. fecal incontinence
Answer : D

15. Which of the following is NOT a first-choice antimicrobial agent for uncomplicated acute cystitis in women?
A. nitrofurantoin monohydrate/macrocrystals
B. trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
C. ampicillin
D. fosfomycin
Answer : C

16. Directed physiotherapy could be of value in treating what NIH type of prostatitis?
A. type II
B. type III-a
C. type III-b
D. type IV
Answer : C

17. What is true regarding honeymoon cystitis?
A. is a self-limiting infection where antibiotics are not required
B. is exclusively for UTI experienced by a girl after sexual intercourse on her wedding night
C. post-coital voiding has no value in the occurrence of the infection
D. self-initiated medication helps control the infection
Answer : D

18. What condition causes sterile pyuria?
A. urethral infection with trichomonas vaginalis
B. bladder infection with adenovirus
C. Kawasakis disease
D. all of the above
Answer : D

19. What type of scrotal ulcers is painless, punched out, with yellowish grey floor?
A. tuberculous ulcer
B. malignant ulcer
C. gummatous ulcers
D. traumatic ulcer
Answer : C

20. What is false concerning epididymitis?
A. should be distinguished from testicular torsion in the emergency setting
B. viral epididymitis is commoner in the elderly
C. chronic epididymitis might complicate BPH
D. chronic epididymitis might require epididymectomy
Answer : B

21. What is NOT a poor clinical practice on caring for urethral catheters?
A. taking urine samples by draining the urine bag
B. daily cleansing the external meatus
C. placing the urine bag on the floor
D. changing the urine bag once it is full
Answer : B

22. What is true concerning scrotal abscesses?
A. could be a complication of chronic epididymitis and orchalgia
B. testicular torsion must be excluded
C. infected hair follicles and scrotal lacerations are predisposing factors
D. urethral discharge is not uncommon presentation
Answer : C

23. What type of bladder cells secretes antiproliferative factor?
A. bladder epithelial cells
B. type C nerve endings in the bladder
C. type A delta nerve endings in the bladder
D. the innermost longitudinal fibres of detrusor muscle
Answer : A

24. What is the mortality rate of emphysematous pyelonephritis?
A. 43%
B. 53%
C. 63%
D. 73%
Answer : A

25. What antimicrobial agent treats UTI and does NOT alter the gut flora?
A. trimethoprim- sulfamethoxazole
B. fluoroquinolones
C. aminoglycosides
D. nitrofurantoins
Answer : D

26. Histologically, the pathognomonic finding of Fournier gangrene include:
A. necrosis of the superficial and deep fascial planes
B. fibrinoid thrombosis of the nutrient arterioles
C. polymorphonuclear cell infiltration
D. all of the above
Answer : D

27. What is false concerning peri-renal abscess?
A. could result from intra-renal abscess of ascending infection
B. urine culture might be negative
C. plain KUB X-ray has no value in the diagnosis
D. surgical drainage is the proper treatment
Answer : C

28. What is the preferred antimicrobial prophylaxis for transrectal prostate biopsy?
A. aminoglycoside
B. fluoroquinolone
C. 2nd generation cephalosporin
D. doxycycline
Answer : B

29. What is the most important pharmacokinetic property of a drug to cure UTI?
A. mode of administration
B. level in the serum
C. level in the urine
D. dosage
Answer : C

30. What is (are) the complication(s) of sexually transmitted infections?
A. pelvic inflammatory disease
B. lymphogranuloma venereum
C. infertility
D. all of the above
Answer : D

31. What is false concerning sepsis syndrome?
A. poor tissue perfusion manifests as hyperlactemia and decreased capillary refill
B. acute oliguria indicates an organ dysfunction and circulatory collapse
C. septic shock is an extreme form of sepsis when hypotension persists despite adequate fluid resuscitation
D. hypotension is a sign of hyperdynamic circulation at an early septic shock
Answer : D

32. What is the proper term to describe high bacterial count in urine without pus?
A. asymptomatic bacteriuria
B. sterile pyouria
C. bacterial colonization
D. unresolved bacteriuria
Answer : C

33. What is the estimated risk of untreated Chlamydial infections in producing pelvic inflammatory disease?
A. 1 2.7%
B. 5 9%
C. 10 27%
D. 30 47%
Answer : C

34. What is false concerning chronic orchialgia syndrome?
A. it is a constant or intermittent pain of testes for more than 3 months
B. could be due to appendix testis torsion-detorsion
C. could be due to radiculitis resulting from a degenerative lesion in the thoraco-lumber vertebrae
D. could be a result of entrapment neuropathy of ilioinguinal or genitofemoral nerve
Answer : B

35. What is true concerning granulomatous inflammation of the prostate?
A. is a common cause of elevated PSA level
B. might follow BCG treatment
C. is sequelae of untreated type III-b prostatitis
D. shows homogenous enhancement following Gd-DTPA on prostate MRI
Answer : B

36. What group of patients should be treated for UTI only when symptomatic?
A. patients with indwelling catheters
B. neurogenic bladder patients on CIC
C. pregnant women
D. children under 5 years
Answer : A

37. A 60 yrs. man underwent TURP for, only, obstructive LUTS. Histology of prostate chips reveals prostatitis. What NIH type of prostatitis would it be?
A. type I
B. type II
C. type III
D. type IV
Answer : D

38. What is the most significant biological difference in women susceptibility to UTI?
A. adherence of bacteria to vaginal cells
B. vaginal dryness
C. O serogroup
D. vaginal pH
Answer : A

39. The virulence of uropathogenic E.coli depends on all the following,
EXCEPT:
A. P blood-group antigen
B. P fimbriae in descending infections
C. emolysins
D. Dr family of adhesins in ascending infections
Answer : B

40. A 40 yrs. man presents with clinical acute pyelonephritis, on intravenous antibiotics for 4 days, CT shows a renal abscess. What is next in the treatment?
A. carry on the full antibiotic course, and then repeat CT
B. incision and drainage of the renal abscess with/without nephrectomy
C. the abscess size dictates management
D. perc. drainage of the renal abscess
Answer : C

41. What is false regarding viral cystitis?
A. in pediatrics, adenovirus types 11 and 21 could result in hemorrhagic cystitis
B. immunosuppressed children are especially susceptible to Cytomegalovirus and Adenoviruses 7, 21, and 35
C. in pediatrics, acute viral cystitis might present as acute retention of urine
D. classically, treatment should be culture-specific
Answer : D

42. HIV infection increases the incidence of the following cancers, EXCEPT:
A. Kaposi sarcoma,
B. Hodgkin lymphoma
C. non-Hodgkin lymphoma
D. cervical cancer
Answer : B

43. What is the ideal antibiotic class for self-start therapy on treating recurrent cystitis in a 32 yrs. married woman?
A. aminopenicillins
B. fluoroquinolones
C. aminoglycosides
D. nitrofurantoins
Answer : B

44. What is false concerning emphysematous cystitis?
A. the hallmark in the diagnosis is the cystoscopic findings
B. risk factors include transplant recipients
C. CT shows intramural and/or intraluminal gas in the bladder
D. requires surgical debridement and probably cystectomy
Answer : A

45. What is false concerning post UTI renal scarring in pediatrics?
A. the incidence of scarring following a single episode of febrile UTI is 4.5%
B. intra-renal reflux is common in convex papillae
C. scarring and chronic pyelonephritis lead to hypertension in 10-20%
D. scarring is best detected and followed up by DMSA
Answer : B

46. What is false concerning cystitis glandularis?
A. rarely, the urothelial cell nests show a central lumen lined by glandular epithelium
B. In some cases, it may form polypoid masses that mimic urothelial neoplasms
C. It might appear as multinodular exophytic mass seen on cystoscopy
D. cystitis cystica and cystitis glandularis frequently coexist in the same specimen
Answer : A

47. UPOINT system for phenotype categorization:
A. categorizes CP-CPPS, IC, and painful bladder syndrome based on 5 etiological principles
B. meant to classify CP-CPPS and IC patients into 6 domains
C. helps establish a reliable diagnosis of CP/CPPS or IC
D. the diagnostic scores of UPOINT depend on cystoscopy, TRUS, urine analysis and culture of uncommon microbes
Answer : B

48. How should a proper routine urine specimen be collected?
A. early morning sample, after cleansing the perineum and meatus
B. by urethral catheterization under strict aseptic technique
C. a clean catch of midstream voided urine
D. by suprapubic aspiration, as urine is sterile
Answer : C

49. What condition(s) could occur in schistosomal ureter?
A. beading of the lower ureteral segment
B. ureteral fibrosis and calcifications of the distal ureter
C. stricture at the uretero-vesical junction
D. all of the above
Answer : D

50. What is false concerning corpora amylacea of the prostate?
A. are premalignant, and found in 1-6% of prostate biopsies
B. are small hyaline masses of unknown significance found in the prostate gland
C. they are degenerate cells or thickened secretions in the prostate ducts
D. might appear as prostate calcifications on X-ray KUB
Answer : A