Urologic infections and inflammations 1000+ MCQ with answer for LSAT

1. What is false concerning renal hydatid cysts?
A. might rupture into the collecting system causing (hydatiduria)and renal colic
B. are formed by the eggs of the tapeworm Echinococcus granulosus
C. most cysts are asymptomatic but might manifest as flank mass, dull pain, or hematuria
D. the most reliable diagnostic test uses partially purified hydatid arc 5 antigens in a double-diffusion test
Answer : B

2. What virus(s) could cause orchitis?
A. Coxsackie B
B. Epstein-Barr
C. varicella
D. all of the above
Answer : D

3. When comparing nosocomial to community-acquired UTI, the latter is:
A. 45% are caused by E. coli
B. related to an indwelling urinary catheter in approximately 40% of cases
C. responds fairly to oral antibiotics
D. tends to report higher antibiotic resistance
Answer : C

4. How should a proper routine urine specimen be collected?
A. early morning sample, after cleansing the perineum and meatus
B. by urethral catheterization under strict aseptic technique
C. a clean catch of midstream voided urine
D. by suprapubic aspiration, as urine is sterile
Answer : C

5. What is true concerning malakoplakia?
A. is a premalignant condition
B. it can be locally aggressive and invades surrounding structures causing bone erosions
C. kidneys are the most commonly affected organs
D. characterized by rounded intracellular inclusions (owls-eyes) in large esinophilic histocytes
Answer : B

6. Which of the following conditions does NOT cause bacterial persistence?
A. perivesical abscess with fistula to bladder
B. acute tubular necrosis
C. renal papillary necrosis
D. xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis
Answer : C

7. What is false concerning the presentation of prostatitis syndrome?
A. type I could harbor prostate abscess
B. type II presents as intermittent urinary tract infections
C. type III-a presentation might include psychological complaints
D. between 10-15% of men with type IV, have pus cells in their semen but no symptoms
Answer : C

8. What is true concerning bacterial colonization in the bladder?
A. is always asymptomatic
B. it shows a serological immune antibody response
C. is a common cause of sterile pyuria
D. typically, at this stage, the body demonstrates bacteriuria
Answer : A

9. What type of cells is implicated most in the pathogenesis of BPS/IC?
A. histocytes
B. T lymphocytes
C. mast cells
D. B lymphocytes
Answer : C

10. What are the commonest organisms causing acute epididymitis in males younger than 35 yrs.?
A. N. gonorrhea and C. trachomatis
B. E. coli and Pseudomonas species
C. Mycoplasma genitalium and Ureaplasma species
D. Trichomonas vaginalis and Gardnerella vaginalis
Answer : A

11. What is false concerning antiretroviral medications?
A. multiple antiretroviral drugs can be combined into a single pill
B. might cause radiolucent renal stones
C. can lead to a significant rise in the serum level of PDE5 inhibitors, if taken simultaneously
D. have the advantage of structured treatment interruptions (drug holidays)
Answer : D

12. What is true regarding honeymoon cystitis?
A. is a self-limiting infection where antibiotics are not required
B. is exclusively for UTI experienced by a girl after sexual intercourse on her wedding night
C. post-coital voiding has no value in the occurrence of the infection
D. self-initiated medication helps control the infection
Answer : D

13. What could NOT cause recurrent UTI in a 25 yrs. woman?
A. bladder neck suspension surgery
B. chronic constipation
C. poor genital hygiene
D. contraceptive diaphragm
Answer : A

14. What is true concerning the definition of UTI in women, based on culture results from a suprapubic aspirate of urine?
A. any amount of uropathogen grown in culture indicates UTI
B. for cystitis, more than 1000 CFU/mL indicates UTI
C. for pyelonephritis, more than 10,000 CFU/mL indicates UTI
D. for asymptomatic bacteriuria, more than 100,000 CFU/mL indicates UTI
Answer : A

15. What is the preferred antibiotic for BPS/IC cases?
A. rifampicin
B. doxycycline
C. azithromycin
D. none of the above
Answer : D

16. What is the least important measure in indwelling catheter care?
A. cleansing the urethral meatus with aseptic agent
B. careful aseptic insertion of the catheter
C. maintenance of a closed drainage system
D. maintaining a dependant drainage system
Answer : A

17. What is the most significant complication of papillary necrosis?
A. ureteral obstruction
B. proteinuria
C. stone formation
D. renal scarring
Answer : A

18. Which of the following factors increases the risk of UTI due to facilitation of microbial ascent?
A. sexual activity
B. the use of spermicide
C. estrogen depletion
D. fecal incontinence
Answer : D

19. During the iniial 3-month period of HIV infection, what would be the best diagnostic lab test?
A. viral load assay
B. western blot analysis
C. southern blot analysis
D. HIV-1/HIV-2 serology assay
Answer : A

20. What is true concerning ovarian vein syndrome?
A. manifests as recurrent renal colics due to ureteral obstruction
B. treatment is surgical mobilization of ureter and ligation of the vein
C. commonly, occurs at the left side
D. the pain worsens on sitting upright and during pregnancy
Answer : B

21. What is false regarding malakoplakia?
A. is an uncommon granulomatous disease that affect the skin and/or urinary bladder
B. it might be due to a disturbed function of B lymphocytes
C. characterized by the presence of basophilic inclusion structure (Michaelis-Gutmann body)
D. it might be due to a defective phagolysosomal activity of monocytes or macrophages
Answer : B

22. The relative risk of prostate cancer in men with HIV compared to uninfected individuals is:
A. greater than 8 fold
B. greater than 6 fold
C. greater than 4 fold
D. comparable
Answer : D

23. UPOINT system for phenotype categorization:
A. categorizes CP-CPPS, IC, and painful bladder syndrome based on 5 etiological principles
B. meant to classify CP-CPPS and IC patients into 6 domains
C. helps establish a reliable diagnosis of CP/CPPS or IC
D. the diagnostic scores of UPOINT depend on cystoscopy, TRUS, urine analysis and culture of uncommon microbes
Answer : B

24. What is false regarding pediatric renal parenchyma scarring?
A. chronic pyelonephritis and HTN lead to ESRD in 10% of the cases
B. neonatal symptoms of UTI are vague and non-specific, that delay the diagnosis and end in more scarring
C. despite adequate treatment, scarring continues after an attack of pyelonephritis as a chronic immune reaction against renal tubules
D. neonates have low intrarenal pelvic pressure, that predisposes to ascending infections
Answer : D

25. What is true concerning the treatment of catheter associated bacteriuria?
A. should be flushed frequently, but no antibiotic is advised
B. should be treated if febrile UTI has developed
C. should be treated only if urine culture is positive
D. should be treated once the catheter is removed
Answer : B

26. Which of the following conditions is NOT associated with interstitial cystitis?
A. inflammatory bowel disease
B. rheumatoid arthritis
C. systemic lupus erythematosus
D. fibromyalgia
Answer : B

27. What type of scrotal ulcers is painless, punched out, with yellowish grey floor?
A. tuberculous ulcer
B. malignant ulcer
C. gummatous ulcers
D. traumatic ulcer
Answer : C

28. Asymptomatic bacteriuria should be treated in the following situations:
A. in the elderly
B. in long-term catheterized patient
C. in pregnancy
D. none of the above
Answer : C

29. What is true regarding nephrogenic adenoma of the bladder?
A. results from ectopic nephrogenic blastema cells in the detrusor muscle
B. might undergo malignant transformation in 15 40% of the cases
C. on cystoscopy, it appears as a bladder mucosal irregularity or large intramural mass
D. the preferred treatment is cystectomy and urinary diversion
Answer : C

30. What is true concerning scrotal abscesses?
A. could be a complication of chronic epididymitis and orchalgia
B. testicular torsion must be excluded
C. infected hair follicles and scrotal lacerations are predisposing factors
D. urethral discharge is not uncommon presentation
Answer : C

31. What could cause scrotal sinus?
A. improperly drained hair follicle scrotal abscess
B. syphilitic orchitis
C. tuberculous epididymitis
D. all of the above
Answer : D

32. What condition is associated with renal papillary necrosis?
A. nephrotic syndrome
B. hypertension
C. sickle cell hemoglobinopathy
D. sarcoidosis
Answer : C

33. What type of human Herpes virus is implicated in all forms of Kaposi sarcoma?
A. 2
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8
Answer : D

34. What is false regarding cystitis cystica?
A. most cysts appear as filling defects on cystography
B. most often found in the trigone area
C. the cyst lumens contain esinophilic secretions that may have a few inflammatory cells
D. cystitis cystica and cystitis glandularis are reactive urothelial changes
Answer : A

35. What is the most important pharmacokinetic property of a drug to cure UTI?
A. mode of administration
B. level in the serum
C. level in the urine
D. dosage
Answer : C

36. What is false concerning corpora amylacea of the prostate?
A. are premalignant, and found in 1-6% of prostate biopsies
B. are small hyaline masses of unknown significance found in the prostate gland
C. they are degenerate cells or thickened secretions in the prostate ducts
D. might appear as prostate calcifications on X-ray KUB
Answer : A

37. What is false concerning acute glomerulonephritis?
A. manifested as a sudden onset of hematuria, proteinuria, oliguria, edema, hypertension, and RBC casts in the urine
B. post-streptococcus GN has an inubation period of 1-3 weeks with specific strains of group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus
C. the triad of sinusitis, pulmonary infiltrates, and nephritis, suggests Wegener granulomatosis
D. C3, C4, ESR and antistreptolysin O titer are increased
Answer : D

38. Under which surgical wound classification, does diagnostic cystoscopy under sterile technique fit?
A. dirty - infected
B. contaminated
C. clean - contaminated
D. clean
Answer : C

39. Which of the following does NOT cause unresolved bacteriuria?
A. giant staghorn stone
B. perivesical abscess with fistula to the bladder
C. bacterial resistance
D. self-inflicted infection
Answer : B

40. Which statement best defines reinfection?
A. a new episode of UTI caused by different species or occurring at long intervals
B. recurrent UTIs caused by the same organism in each instance, classically, at close intervals
C. recurrent UTIs due to failure of medical therapy to eradicate the infection
D. recurrent UTIs due to a persistent pathology that is obstinate to surgery
Answer : A

41. What is the laboratory differentiation between type III-a and type III-b prostatitis?
A. the cytological examination of the urine and/or EPS
B. transrectal ultrasonographic examination
C. the presence of ?10 WBCs/HPF in the urine with negative culture in type III-b
D. the positive urine culture, and negative EPS support type III-a
Answer : A

42. What is false concerning the management of genitourinary TB?
A. prostatic TB is better drained per rectum before initiating the medications
B. renal TB may require nephroureterectomy
C. peripheral neuritis is a known side effect of isoniazid
D. moxifloxacin might result in tendon rupture
Answer : A

43. What is false concerning UTI in long-term care facilities?
A. in catheterized individuals, entry of bacteria into the bladder is facilitated by the bacterial glycocalyx biofilm
B. infection cannot be reliably distinguished from bacteriuria by lab tests
C. co-trimoxazole is the preferred antibiotic for empiric therapy
D. symptomatic UTI may be a diagnosis of exclusion
Answer : C

44. What are the diagnostic findings on cystometrogram for BPS/IC?
A. discomfort on placing urethral catheter and pain on bladder filling
B. difficulty in zeroing the pressure and diminished response to first cough
C. low filling pressure but high voiding pressure
D. uninhibited bladder contractions with a relative bladder hypotonia
Answer : A

45. What is (are) the complication(s) of sexually transmitted infections?
A. pelvic inflammatory disease
B. lymphogranuloma venereum
C. infertility
D. all of the above
Answer : D

46. Patients with bladder pain syndrome have:
A. a history of repeated urologic and/or gynecologic procedures
B. 10 fold higher incidence of childhood voiding problems
C. 4 fold higher incidence of anxiety-depression syndrome
D. 6 fold higher incidence of psychosomatic disorders
Answer : B

47. In males, HIV infection increases the incidence of the following genitourinary tumors:
A. testicular
B. renal
C. penile
D. all of the above
Answer : D

48. Which of the following is NOT a treatment option for BPS/IC?
A. substitution cystoplasty and continent diversion
B. fulguration of a Hunner`s ulcer or hydrodistention
C. intravesical installation of silver nitrate or dimethyl sulfoxide
D. low dose external beam irradiation
Answer : D

49. What is false regarding Herpes simplex (HSV) infection?
A. characterized by neurovirulence
B. the incubation period of primary genital herpes is 2 3 weeks
C. HSV can be isolated in the urine
D. HSV-1 infection causes urethritis more often than HSV-2 does
Answer : B

50. What condition(s) could occur in schistosomal ureter?
A. beading of the lower ureteral segment
B. ureteral fibrosis and calcifications of the distal ureter
C. stricture at the uretero-vesical junction
D. all of the above
Answer : D