CEED - Urologic infections and inflammations 1000+ MCQ [Solved] PDF Download

1. What is the proper term to describe high bacterial count in urine without pus?
A. asymptomatic bacteriuria
B. sterile pyouria
C. bacterial colonization
D. unresolved bacteriuria
Answer : C

2. What is false regarding cystitis cystica?
A. most cysts appear as filling defects on cystography
B. most often found in the trigone area
C. the cyst lumens contain esinophilic secretions that may have a few inflammatory cells
D. cystitis cystica and cystitis glandularis are reactive urothelial changes
Answer : A

3. What is the preferred antibiotic for BPS/IC cases?
A. rifampicin
B. doxycycline
C. azithromycin
D. none of the above
Answer : D

4. What is the ideal antibiotic class for self-start therapy on treating recurrent cystitis in a 32 yrs. married woman?
A. aminopenicillins
B. fluoroquinolones
C. aminoglycosides
D. nitrofurantoins
Answer : B

5. What is false regarding Gonorrheal STD in women?
A. nucleic acid amplification tests are the preferred to diagnose Gonococcal and Chlamydial infections
B. shows dark yellow, purulent, thick urethral discharge
C. the most common site of the infection is the endocervix
D. the incubation period is 2 3 weeks
Answer : D

6. How should a proper routine urine specimen be collected?
A. early morning sample, after cleansing the perineum and meatus
B. by urethral catheterization under strict aseptic technique
C. a clean catch of midstream voided urine
D. by suprapubic aspiration, as urine is sterile
Answer : C

7. Which of the following has NO role in bacterial colonization in the prostate?
A. intra-prostatic ductal reflux
B. paraphimosis
C. specific blood groups
D. unprotected anal intercourse
Answer : B

8. What kind of cystitis does NOT progress to malignancy?
A. foreign-body cystitis due to vesical calculi
B. Von Brunn`s nests of cystitis cystica and cystitis glandularis
C. schistosomiasis cystitis
D. inverted papilloma of the bladder
Answer : B

9. What type of cells is implicated most in the pathogenesis of BPS/IC?
A. histocytes
B. T lymphocytes
C. mast cells
D. B lymphocytes
Answer : C

10. What type of bladder cells secretes antiproliferative factor?
A. bladder epithelial cells
B. type C nerve endings in the bladder
C. type A delta nerve endings in the bladder
D. the innermost longitudinal fibres of detrusor muscle
Answer : A

11. What does NOT predispose to acute epididymitis is:
A. TUR ejaculatory duct
B. prolonged urethral catheterization
C. prostatic biopsy
D. vas ligation
Answer : C

12. What type of scrotal ulcers is painless, punched out, with yellowish grey floor?
A. tuberculous ulcer
B. malignant ulcer
C. gummatous ulcers
D. traumatic ulcer
Answer : C

13. Which of the following does NOT cause unresolved bacteriuria?
A. giant staghorn stone
B. perivesical abscess with fistula to the bladder
C. bacterial resistance
D. self-inflicted infection
Answer : B

14. What is false regarding biopsy-taking from interstitial cystitis bladder?
A. no pathognomonic histology for interstitial cystitis
B. basically, biopsies are performed to exclude carcinomas and other varieties of cystitis
C. diagnostic biopsies include the presence of discrete micro-ulcers and increased numbers of mast cells in the detrusor muscle or submucosa
D. none of the above
Answer : C

15. What is false concerning emphysematous cystitis?
A. the hallmark in the diagnosis is the cystoscopic findings
B. risk factors include transplant recipients
C. CT shows intramural and/or intraluminal gas in the bladder
D. requires surgical debridement and probably cystectomy
Answer : A

16. In which segmented voided bladder (VB) specimen, the diagnosis of chronic prostatitis is confirmed?
A. VB1 and VB3
B. prostatic secretions and the VB3
C. prostatic secretions and the VB2
D. prostatic secretions and the VB1
Answer : B

17. What is false concerning esinophilic cystitis?
A. probably due to antibody/antigen reaction
B. has no diagnostic findings on cystoscopy
C. has no specific medical therapy
D. on histology, Von Brunn`s nests appear invaginating the urothelium into the lamina propria
Answer : D

18. In males, HIV infection increases the incidence of the following genitourinary tumors:
A. testicular
B. renal
C. penile
D. all of the above
Answer : D

19. Irritative LUTS and dyspareunia in postmenopausal women are most likely to be due to:
A. giggle incontinence
B. estrogen deficiency
C. cystitis glandularis
D. cystitis cystica
Answer : B

20. What is the percentage of occurrence of Staphylococcus saprophyticus in symptomatic lowerUTIs in young sexually active females?
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 15%
D. 20%
Answer : B

21. What is false regarding urethral syndrome in postmenopausal women?
A. pH of vaginal secretions increases after menopause
B. estrogen deficiency manifests as trophic urethritis and atrophic vaginitis
C. topical conjugated estrogen replacement carries a significant risk of breast and endometrial cancers
D. manifestations might include obstructive symptoms and non-infectious cystitis
Answer : C

22. What is false concerning genitourinary TB?
A. is the commonest extra-pulmonary site of infection
B. bladder TB is secondary to renal TB, and usually begins at the ureteral orifices
C. in the kidneys, TB is typically bilateral, cortical, and adjacent to the glomeruli; they may remain dormant for ages
D. epididymal TB might occur by hematogenous or direct spread from the urinary tract
Answer : A

23. All of the following etiologies for interstitial cystitis have been theorized, EXCEPT:
A. allergic, type I hypersensitivity response
B. pelvic floor dysfunction
C. up-regulation of histaminergic and muscarinic neuro-receptors
D. neural hypersensitivity
Answer : A

24. The relative risk of prostate cancer in men with HIV compared to uninfected individuals is:
A. greater than 8 fold
B. greater than 6 fold
C. greater than 4 fold
D. comparable
Answer : D

25. What are the target immune cells for HIV?
A. phagocytes
B. CD4 T cells
C. B lymphocytes
D. natural killer cells
Answer : B

26. What is false in the treatment and prevention of STDs?
A. antibiotic therapy is recommended for affected individuals with documented trichomonal infection and sexual partners even if asymptomatic
B. empirical treatment for gonococcal urethritis should cover chlamydia trachomatis
C. consistent and proper usage of condoms is estimated to prevent HIV transmission by approximately 80 to 95%
D. vaccinations are available for the prevention of human papillomavirus, N. gonorrhea, chlamydia trachomatis
Answer : D

27. What are the diagnostic findings on cystometrogram for BPS/IC?
A. discomfort on placing urethral catheter and pain on bladder filling
B. difficulty in zeroing the pressure and diminished response to first cough
C. low filling pressure but high voiding pressure
D. uninhibited bladder contractions with a relative bladder hypotonia
Answer : A

28. What is true regarding honeymoon cystitis?
A. is a self-limiting infection where antibiotics are not required
B. is exclusively for UTI experienced by a girl after sexual intercourse on her wedding night
C. post-coital voiding has no value in the occurrence of the infection
D. self-initiated medication helps control the infection
Answer : D

29. What is true regarding nephrogenic adenoma of the bladder?
A. results from ectopic nephrogenic blastema cells in the detrusor muscle
B. might undergo malignant transformation in 15 40% of the cases
C. on cystoscopy, it appears as a bladder mucosal irregularity or large intramural mass
D. the preferred treatment is cystectomy and urinary diversion
Answer : C

30. Which of the following is NOT a first-choice antimicrobial agent for uncomplicated acute cystitis in women?
A. nitrofurantoin monohydrate/macrocrystals
B. trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
C. ampicillin
D. fosfomycin
Answer : C

31. What is false concerning urinary catheter-associated UTI (CAUTI)?
A. once a catheter is placed, the daily incidence of bacteriuria is 3-10%
B. on long-term catheterization, over 90% of patients develop bacteriuria
C. the practice of using urinary catheters to control incontinence in bedridden patients should be discouraged
D. urine bags should be placed on the floor to enhance gravity drainage
Answer : D

32. What is the most virulent factor for bacterial adherence?
A. P blood group
B. fimbria
C. pili
D. hemolysin
Answer : C

33. What is the bladder`s first-line defense against infections?
A. natural sloughing of bladder mucosa
B. voiding
C. urine osmolarity
D. urine pH
Answer : B

34. What is false regarding prostatic abscesses?
A. clinically, cannot be differentiated from acute bacterial prostatitis
B. medical management is often unsuccessful
C. it harbors prostate cancer in approximately 4.3% of cases
D. management include suprapubic urinary diversion
Answer : C

35. What is false concerning acute glomerulonephritis?
A. manifested as a sudden onset of hematuria, proteinuria, oliguria, edema, hypertension, and RBC casts in the urine
B. post-streptococcus GN has an incubation period of 1-3 weeks with specific strains of group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus
C. the triad of sinusitis, pulmonary infiltrates, and nephritis, suggests Wegener granulomatosis
D. C3, C4, ESR and antistreptolysin O titer are increased
Answer : D

36. Which of the following conditions does NOT cause bacterial persistence?
A. perivesical abscess with fistula to bladder
B. acute tubular necrosis
C. renal papillary necrosis
D. xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis
Answer : C

37. Which of the following factors increases the risk of UTI due to promotion of microbial colonization?
A. neurogenic bladder
B. the use of spermiide
C. urinary catheterization
D. fecal incontinence
Answer : B

38. What is true concerning BPS/IC?
A. the onset of symptoms is insidious
B. the lesion has no proven relation to bladder cancer
C. if left untreated, the bladder will turn small, contracted, with submucosal calcifications
D. a single positive urine culture refutes the diagnosis
Answer : B

39. A 60 yrs. man underwent TURP for, only, obstructive LUTS. Histology of prostate chips reveals prostatitis. What NIH type of prostatitis would it be?
A. type I
B. type II
C. type III
D. type IV
Answer : D

40. What is false concerning sepsis syndrome?
A. poor tissue perfusion manifests as hyperlactemia and decreased capillary refill
B. acute oliguria indicates an organ dysfunction and circulatory collapse
C. septic shock is an extreme form of sepsis when hypotension persists despite adequate fluid resuscitation
D. hypotension is a sign of hyperdynamic circulation at an early septic shock
Answer : D

41. What is true concerning HIV infection?
A. HIV is a retrovirus that infects B-cells and dendritic cells
B. circumcised men are at lower risk for HIV infection
C. HPV infection increases the risk for cancers in HIV patients by 6.3 times
D. plasma HIV RNA load is a predictor of disease remission
Answer : B

42. Using low-dose prophylactic or suppressive antimicrobials might be an option in treating the following type of prostatitis:
A. acute bacterial prostatitis presenting with abscess formation
B. recurrent or refractory chronic bacterial prostatitis
C. asymptomatic prostatitis with pyuria resistant to common antimicrobials
D. curiously, chronic inflammatory prostatitis could respond to low-dose suppressive antibiotic
Answer : B

43. What is false concerning epididymitis?
A. should be distinguished from testicular torsion in the emergency setting
B. viral epididymitis is commoner in the elderly
C. chronic epididymitis might complicate BPH
D. chronic epididymitis might require epididymectomy
Answer : B

44. What is false concerning renal hydatid cysts?
A. might rupture into the collecting system causing (hydatiduria)and renal colic
B. are formed by the eggs of the tapeworm Echinococcus granulosus
C. most cysts are asymptomatic but might manifest as flank mass, dull pain, or hematuria
D. the most reliable diagnostic test uses partially purified hydatid arc 5 antigens in a double-diffusion test
Answer : B

45. What is the best statement that describes the action of antiproliferative factor?
A. inhibits bladder epithelial cell proliferation
B. inhibits the bladder proliferative growth factors
C. stimulates the proliferation inhibitory factors
D. none of the above
Answer : A

46. What could cause scrotal sinus?
A. improperly drained hair follicle scrotal abscess
B. syphilitic orchitis
C. tuberculous epididymitis
D. all of the above
Answer : D

47. A 40 yrs. man presents with clinical acute pyelonephritis, on intravenous antibiotics for 4 days, CT shows a renal abscess. What is next in the treatment?
A. carry on the full antibiotic course, and then repeat CT
B. incision and drainage of the renal abscess with/without nephrectomy
C. the abscess size dictates management
D. perc. drainage of the renal abscess
Answer : C

48. When comparing nosocomial to community-acquired UTI, the latter is:
A. 45% are caused by E. coli
B. related to an indwelling urinary catheter in approximately 40% of cases
C. responds fairly to oral antibiotics
D. tends to report higher antibiotic resistance
Answer : C

49. Why could pyuria be sterile?
A. because standard laboratory culture specifications might not be favorable for growth of atypical organisms
B. because UTI could show fewer than 10 white cells/mm3 in urine
C. because laboratories may not report significant growth of a defined urinary pathogen
D. all of the above
Answer : D

50. What is the commonest intra-scrotal pathology in AIDS patients?
A. beaded vas deferens
B. testicular micrilithiasis
C. testicular atrophy
D. epididymal granuloma
Answer : C