Urology Basic Science 1000+ MCQ with answer for JEE Main

1. Which group(s) of lymph nodes drain(s) the glans penis?
A. internal and external iliac
B. superficial inguinal
C. deep inguinal
D. superficial and deep inguinal
Answer : A

2. What is the best method to evaluate calcium levels in the urine?
A. from early morning urine sample
B. comparing urine and serum calcium at a given time
C. performing 24 urine collection
D. from a mid-stream urine sample
Answer : C

3. What is the best initial therapy for hyponatremic dehydration?
A. administration of hypertonic saline
B. administration of crystalloid
C. administration of normal saline
D. administration of ringer lactate
Answer : C

4. Which agent is safe to kidneys?
A. amoxicillin
B. gentamycin
C. diclofenac
D. herb extract
Answer : A

5. Which nephron segment contains the most diluted urine in central diabetes insipidus patient?
A. proximal convoluted tubules
B. distal convoluted tubules
C. collecting duct
D. loop of Henle
Answer : C

6. In which body tissue(s) are creatine and phosphocreatine converted to creatinine?
A. bone marrow
B. skeletal muscles
C. brown fat
D. liver
Answer : B

7. Which statement regarding post-obstructive diuresis (POD) is false?
A. urine production exceeding 200 ml/hr for 2 consecutive hours or producing greater than 3 L of urine in 24 hours is diagnostic of POD
B. pathologic POD can be exacerbated by excessive fluid replacement
C. the replacement fluid choice is ringer lactate
D. fluid resuscitation depends on the degree of dehydration
Answer : C

8. What is false about indinavir sulfate stones?
A. intratubular crystal formation might occur
B. CT cannot reliably confirm the presence of indinavir calculi
C. stone formation is demonstrated in 80% of patients taking the medication
D. is a protease inhibitor with poor solubility and significant urinary excretion
Answer : C

9. Which zone of the prostate originates from the Wolffian duct tissue:
A. central zone
B. peripheral zone
C. transitional zone
D. periurethral glands
Answer : A

10. How many days does spermatogenesis take in the man?
A. 16
B. 32
C. 64
D. 90
Answer : C

11. Which artery is NOT a branch of the anterior division of internal iliac artery?
A. superior vesical artery
B. inferior vesical artery
C. superior gluteal artery
D. inferior gluteal artery
Answer : C

12. Which area in the nervous system is tested by bulbocavernosus reflex?
A. brain stem
B. C2 C4
C. S2 - S4
D. L2 - L4
Answer : C

13. In utero, which hormone stimulates the development of Wolffian ducts?
A. estradiol
B. DHT
C. FSH
D. testosterone
Answer : D

14. Where is the gene sex-determining region (SRY) located at?
A. long arm of X chromosome
B. long arm of Y chromosome
C. short arm of Y chromosome
D. short arm of X chromosome
Answer : C

15. Which action of thigh muscles could be impaired if the obturator nerve was injured during endoscopic resection of bladder tumors?
A. adduction
B. abduction
C. flexion
D. extension
Answer : A

16. What do the specialized cells, at the juxtaglomerular apparatus, produce?
A. erythropoietin
B. renin
C. angiotensin I
D. angiotensinogen
Answer : B

17. What could render red urine workup, false positive for hematuria?
A. dehydration
B. myoglobinuria
C. high doses of vitamin C
D. all of the above
Answer : D

18. What is the prime effect of antidiuretic hormone on kidneys?
A. increase collecting duct permeability
B. increase medullary blood flow
C. decrease cortical blood flow
D. decrease potassium secretion
Answer : A

19. All of the following develop from the mesonephric ducts, EXCEPT:
A. vas deferens
B. seminal vesicles
C. appendix epididymis
D. appendix testis
Answer : D

20. Which of the following is NOT related to von Hippel-Lindau disease?
A. retinal hemangioblastoma
B. ureteral atresia
C. pheochromocytomas
D. multiple cysts in the pancreas and kidneys
Answer : B

21. Which statement concerning urine pH is false?
A. influenced by food and medications
B. renal stones form at the extremes of pH range
C. reliable only when measured by 24 hr. urine collection
D. ranges from 4 7
Answer : C

22. Hematuria of glomerular origin is associated with:
A. significant proteinuria, dysmorphic RBCs, RBC asts
B. glycosuria, eumorphic RBCs, WBC casts
C. hypercalciuria, eumorphic RBCs, granular casts
D. proteinuria, dysmorphic RBCs, hyaline casts
Answer : A

23. On tracing the IVU dye down, in a dilated ureter, the dilation stops at a level then continues as a normal calibre ureter. What could the pathology be?
A. lower ureteral stricture
B. ureteral valve
C. modified Lich-Gregoire ureteral reimplantation
D. residual dilation of hydroureter
Answer : B

24. What class of antibiotics might cause vestibular and/or auditory impairment?
A. aminoglycosides
B. ?antipseudomonal penicillins
C. cephalosporins
D. fluoroquinolones
Answer : A

25. Where is Santorini plexus located?
A. at either side of the prostate
B. in the pubo-prostatic space
C. anterior to the seminal vesicles
D. posterior to the vaso-epididymal junction
Answer : B

26. Which agent should be avoided during living-related donor nephrectomy?
A. ice slush
B. heparin
C. norepinephrine
D. methylene blue
Answer : C

27. What is false concerning the collecting system structures of a typical kidney?
A. the renal pelvis could be intra or extra renal
B. the renal pelvis divides into 2 or 3 major calyces
C. major calyces divide into 2 or 3 minor calyces
D. unlike lateral calyces, polar calyces are often paired
Answer : D

28. In utero, which hormone stimulates the development of the prostate gland?
A. estradiol
B. DHT
C. FSH
D. testosterone
Answer : B

29. What do urine tests examine to detect hematuria?
A. catalase activity of erythrocytes
B. peroxidase activity of erythrocytes
C. lyase activity of erythrocytes
D. none of the above
Answer : B

30. The mature genitourinary system develops from all of the following embryonic sources, EXCEPT:
A. intermediate mesoderm
B. mesothelium of celomic cavity
C. endoderm of the urogenital sinus
D. somatic ectoderm
Answer : D

31. Which anomaly might accompany horseshoe kidneys?
A. ureteropelvic junction obstruction
B. ureterocele
C. ureteral reflux
D. ureteral atresia
Answer : A

32. Which class of the following diuretics could cause erectile dysfunction?
A. loop diuretics
B. thiazide diuretics
C. potassium sparing diuretics
D. osmotic diuretics
Answer : B

33. Which of the following is NOT a side effect of hydrochlorothiazide?
A. hypercholesterolemia
B. hyperuricemia
C. hypoglycemia
D. hypercalcemia
Answer : C

34. What could cause autonomic dysreflexia?
A. full bladder or rectum
B. tooth extraction
C. hypertension medications
D. uncontrolled diabetes mellitus
Answer : A

35. Which of the following is false regarding zona glomeruloza?
A. the most superficial layer of the adrenal cortex
B. responses to increased potassium levels, renin or decreased renal blood flow
C. it causes pheochromocytoma
D. secretes aldosterone
Answer : C

36. How can hyperuricosuria cause calcium oxalate calculi?
A. by increasing oxalate absorption
B. by heterogeneous nucleation
C. by inducing hyperoxaluria
D. by reducing urate crystals saturation
Answer : B

37. Which of the following does asymptomatic hematuria workup include?
A. cystoscopy
B. CT urography
C. urine cytology
D. all of the above
Answer : D

38. What nerve provides the major neural supply to the striated urinary sphincter and levator ani muscle?
A. somatic innervations
B. sympathetic fibers from T11 - L2
C. the pudendal nerve
D. the obturator nerve
Answer : C

39. Which period of intrauterine life does the process of organ formation (organogenesis) take place?
A. 9 12 weeks
B. 12 15 weeks
C. 15 18 weeks
D. 18 21 weeks
Answer : A

40. All of the following conditions are related to obesity syndrome, EXCEPT:
A. super fertility
B. increase aromatization reaction
C. increase resistance to circulating insulin
D. sleep apnea
Answer : A

41. Which microbe causes red diaper syndrome?
A. Serratia marcescens
B. Streptococcus pyogenes
C. Clostridium difficile
D. Staphylococcus saprophyticus
Answer : A

42. Which innervations mediate detumescence?
A. cavernous nerves
B. dorsal nerves of the penis
C. sympathetic nervous system
D. parasympathetic nervous system
Answer : C

43. What is false concerning PSA molecule?
A. the free form of PSA exists in small proportions in the body, and found mainly in BPH and in the ejaculate
B. ?1- anti chymotrypsin binds to 3 epitopes of the PSA molecule to form a complexed PSA
C. ?2- macroglobulin binds to 5 epitopes of the PSA molecule to form a complexed PSA
D. the purified PSA molecule has a molecular weight of 90 kDa
Answer : D

44. What causes pure testicular feminization is:
A. over estrogen synthesis
B. defective end-organ androgen response
C. extra X chromosome (XXY)
D. failure of genital ridge regression
Answer : B

45. Which of the prostate medications could result in retrograde ejaculation?
A. tamsulosin
B. doxazosin
C. dutasteride
D. alfuzosin
Answer : A

46. To which region does pain, from the left mid ureter, refer to?
A. the loin region
B. the inguinal region
C. the umbilical region
D. the penis or clitoris
Answer : B

47. Where do Cowper`s gland ducts drain into?
A. ejaculatory ducts
B. prostatic urethra
C. membranous urethra
D. bulbous urethra
Answer : D

48. What is the most common cause of hematuria in men over 60 yrs.?
A. kidney stones
B. glomerulonephritis
C. BPH
D. bladder cancer
Answer : C

49. What is the half-life of ?-HCG?
A. 5 7 days
B. 24 36 hours
C. 2 3 days
D. 12 24 hours
Answer : B

50. From where does the main parasympathetic efferent innervation to the pelvic plexus arise?
A. S1
B. S2-S4
C. T11-L2
D. L3-S1
Answer : B