Urology Basic Science MCQ Solved Paper for RBI Assistant

1. Which of the following contributes second to the seminal fluid by volume?
A. seminal vesicles
B. the prostate
C. testes
D. bulbourethral glands
Answer : B

2. By which of the following structures, do the fused lower poles of hoarseshoe kidneys get trapped during embryologic ascent?
A. inferior mesenteric artery
B. superior mesenteric artery
C. celiac artery
D. common iliac artery
Answer : A

3. What is true regarding hematospermia?
A. should be investigated thoroughly like hematuria
B. is rarely associated with significant urologic pathology
C. carries a risk of infertility
D. mandates testicular biopsy
Answer : B

4. In utero, which hormone stimulates the development of the prostate gland?
A. estradiol
B. DHT
C. FSH
D. testosterone
Answer : B

5. In which organelle in Leydig cell does testosterone synthesis take place?
A. ribosome
B. mitochondria
C. Golgi apparatus
D. endoplasmic reticulum
Answer : D

6. In which condition can NOT creatinine level be 1200 mg/dL?
A. an aspirate of pelvic urinoma
B. in untreated end-stage renal failure disease
C. a sample from a wound drain after pyeloplasty
D. a sample from suprapubic catheter
Answer : B

7. What is false concerning PSA molecule?
A. the free form of PSA exists in small proportions in the body, and found mainly in BPH and in the ejaculate
B. ?1- anti chymotrypsin binds to 3 epitopes of the PSA molecule to form a complexed PSA
C. ?2- macroglobulin binds to 5 epitopes of the PSA molecule to form a complexed PSA
D. the purified PSA molecule has a molecular weight of 90 kDa
Answer : D

8. To which group of lymph nodes do tumors at the anterior superior area of the bladder, first, drain?
A. hypogastric
B. internal iliac
C. external iliac
D. lateral sacral
Answer : C

9. What is the prime effect of antidiuretic hormone on kidneys?
A. increase collecting duct permeability
B. increase medullary blood flow
C. decrease cortical blood flow
D. decrease potassium secretion
Answer : A

10. Bacterial resistance to antibiotics may occur because of:
A. inherited chromosomal-mediated resistance
B. acquired chromosomal-mediated resistance
C. extrachromosomal-mediated resistance
D. all of the above
Answer : D

11. Which of the following is NOT a part of the urogenital diaphragm structures?
A. perineal membrane
B. deep transverse perineal muscle
C. urethral sphincter
D. Camper`s fascia
Answer : D

12. Which of the following conditions could result in white urine?
A. chyluria
B. bacteriuria
C. phosphaturia
D. all of the above
Answer : D

13. Which of the following is false regarding zona glomeruloza?
A. the most superficial layer of the adrenal cortex
B. responses to increased potassium levels, renin or decreased renal blood flow
C. it causes pheochromocytoma
D. secretes aldosterone
Answer : C

14. What are the first and second most common zones from where prostate cancers arise?
A. central then transitional
B. peripheral then transitional
C. peripheral then central
D. transitional then central
Answer : B

15. Serum testosterone should be measured:
A. at mid-day
B. at the hour of sleep
C. in the morning
D. late afternoon
Answer : C

16. What is the earliest clinical sign of puberty in boys?
A. hoarseness of voice
B. enlargement of testes
C. appearance of axillary hair
D. change in body odor
Answer : B

17. Which of the following mediates calcium reabsorption in the distal renal tubules?
A. aldosterone
B. hypocalcemia
C. parathyroid hormone
D. vitamin D
Answer : C

18. Renal blood flow is autoregulated by:
A. sympathetic nervous system
B. parasympathetic nervous system
C. urinary output
D. afferent arteriolar resistance
Answer : D

19. What is the narrowest part of the ureter?
A. uretero-pelvic junction
B. uretero-vesical junction
C. where ureters cross the pelvic brim
D. where ureters cross the common iliac bifurcation
Answer : B

20. What is the most significant complication of cyclosporine?
A. hepatic toxicity
B. renal toxicity
C. neural toxicity
D. cardiac toxicity
Answer : B

21. Where do Cowper`s gland ducts drain into?
A. ejaculatory ducts
B. prostatic urethra
C. membranous urethra
D. bulbous urethra
Answer : D

22. What is the approximated bladder capacity of an 8 yrs. girl?
A. 150 ml
B. 200 ml
C. 250 ml
D. 300 ml
Answer : D

23. What do urine tests examine to detect hematuria?
A. catalase activity of erythrocytes
B. peroxidase activity of erythrocytes
C. lyase activity of erythrocytes
D. none of the above
Answer : B

24. What is the most likely cause of large scrotal hematoma in neonates?
A. clotting factor VIII deficiency
B. clotting factor IX deficiency
C. breech delivery
D. scrotal cavernous haemangioma
Answer : C

25. What could cause autonomic dysreflexia?
A. full bladder or rectum
B. tooth extraction
C. hypertension medications
D. uncontrolled diabetes mellitus
Answer : A

26. How long post bilateral orchiectomy, will patients be functionally castrated?
A. immediately
B. after 2 hrs.
C. after 12 hrs.
D. after 24 hrs.
Answer : B

27. Which action of thigh muscles could be impaired if the obturator nerve was injured during endoscopic resection of bladder tumors?
A. adduction
B. abduction
C. flexion
D. extension
Answer : A

28. Which of the following carries the greatest risk of HIV transmission to health care workers?
A. splash of patient`s blood to the eyes
B. splash of patient`s blood to the mouth
C. surgical suture needle stick
D. hollow bore needle stick
Answer : D

29. Which artery is NOT a branch of the anterior division of internal iliac artery?
A. superior vesical artery
B. inferior vesical artery
C. superior gluteal artery
D. inferior gluteal artery
Answer : C

30. During fluoroscopy, what is the main source of radiation hazards that urologists could be exposed to?
A. scattered radiation from the unleaded wall
B. scattered radiation from the patient
C. scattered radiation from the floor and ceiling
D. radiation from the primary beam
Answer : B

31. Which statement explains the first event in the micturition reflex?
A. opening of internal bladder sphincter
B. fall in urethral pressure
C. rise in intravesical pressure
D. cessation of sphincter EMG activity
Answer : D

32. What is the most frequent anomaly associated with multicystic renal dysplasia?
A. ureteral atresia
B. vesicoureteral reflux
C. ureteropelvic junction obstruction
D. ureteral duplication
Answer : A

33. Which antibiotic is the best to treat soft tissue infection with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) in hospitalized patients?
A. vancomycin
B. cefotaxime
C. penicillin G
D. tobramycin
Answer : A

34. What is the number of bacteria per high-power field microscopy that matches colony counts of 100,000/mL?
A. 100
B. 50
C. 10
D. 5
Answer : D

35. Which statement concerning urine pH is false?
A. influenced by food and medications
B. renal stones form at the extremes of pH range
C. reliable only when measured by 24 hr. urine collection
D. ranges from 4 7
Answer : C

36. What is false about indinavir sulfate stones?
A. intratubular crystal formation might occur
B. CT cannot reliably confirm the presence of indinavir calculi
C. stone formation is demonstrated in 80% of patients taking the medication
D. is a protease inhibitor with poor solubility and significant urinary excretion
Answer : C

37. All of the following conditions are related to obesity syndrome, EXCEPT:
A. super fertility
B. increase aromatization reaction
C. increase resistance to circulating insulin
D. sleep apnea
Answer : A

38. What increases blood volume and pressure in corpora cavernosa during erection is:
A. increase in sympathetic discharge
B. contraction of ischiocavernosa and bulbocavernosa muscles
C. increase arterial flow and closure of emissary veins
D. shunting of blood from the dorsal to the central cavernosal artery
Answer : C

39. What is the best initial therapy for hyponatremic dehydration?
A. administration of hypertonic saline
B. administration of crystalloid
C. administration of normal saline
D. administration of ringer lactate
Answer : C

40. Which statement is false concerning the dipstick method for detecting hematuria?
A. depends on the ability of hemoglobin to oxidize a chromogen indicator
B. negative results need to be confirmed by microscopic examination
C. has a sensitivity of 95% and a specificity of 75%
D. the presence of many epithelial cells suggests skin or vaginal contamination
Answer : B

41. What do the specialized cells, at the juxtaglomerular apparatus, produce?
A. erythropoietin
B. renin
C. angiotensin I
D. angiotensinogen
Answer : B

42. Which period of intrauterine life does the process of organ formation (organogenesis) take place?
A. 9 12 weeks
B. 12 15 weeks
C. 15 18 weeks
D. 18 21 weeks
Anwer : A

43. Which of the following does asymptomatic hematuria workup include?
A. cystoscopy
B. CT urography
C. urine cytology
D. all of the above
Answer : D

44. What class of antibiotics might cause vestibular and/or auditory impairment?
A. aminoglycosides
B. ?antipseudomonal penicillins
C. cephalosporins
D. fluoroquinolones
Answer : A

45. In utero, which hormone stimulates the development of Wolffian ducts?
A. estradiol
B. DHT
C. FSH
D. testosterone
Answer : D

46. What is the most common cause of hematuria in men over 60 yrs.?
A. kidney stones
B. glomerulonephritis
C. BPH
D. bladder cancer
Answer : C

47. Which anomaly might accompany horseshoe kidneys?
A. ureteropelvic junction obstruction
B. ureterocele
C. ureteral reflux
D. ureteral atresia
Answer : A

48. At which condition is alpha-fetoprotein most frequently elevated?
A. infiltrating ductal carcinoma of the breast
B. seminoma
C. hepatocellular carcinoma
D. malignant melanoma
Answer : C

49. Which organ contributes most to the seminal fluid volume?
A. testes
B. prostate
C. seminal vesicles
D. bulbourethral glands
Answer : C

50. Which of the following is NOT a sex accessory tissue?
A. the prostate gland
B. seminal vesicles
C. epididymi
D. bulbourethral glands
Answer : C